The Hypostatic Union

G

guest1

Guest
Hypostatic Union

1. Jesus is a person. (1 Tim 2:5)

2. Jesus, the Person, has two natures- Divine and human (John 1:1, 14, 1 Timothy 3:16): Divine and human. This is the Hypostatic Union.( Col 2:9, Heb 1:3,2:16)

3. The Communicatio Idiomatum (Communication of the Properties) states that the attributes of His Divine nature and human nature are both ascribed to the one Person of Jesus. So Jesus can exhibit attributes of Divinity (Omnipresence, Omniscience, Omnipotence, . John 2:23, 3:13, 8:58, He was prayed to in Acts 7:59, John 14:13, He was is worshiped Matt 2:2:11, Rev 5:13-14) and at the same time exhibit attributes of His humanity( He was tempted, ate, prayed,wept, grew in wisdom and stature,was anointed,was baptized, the Father was greater, didn’t know the day or the hour of His Return, He cried My God my God why has Thou forsaken Me, He died etc.). The communicatio idiomatum does not mean that any part of the Divine nature was communicated to the human nature.


4. The Man(anthropos) Jesus is what we perceive (if we were there 2000 years ago in Israel) and through the Man we encounter the Divine nature (Jesus knowing all things, is on earth while in heaven, answers prayer, forgiving sins, etc.).

5. The Person of Jesus will always be both Divine and human. (John 1:1,14,20:28, 1 John 5:20, 1 Timothy 2:5) Those who deny this fact are the spirit of antichrist. (1 John 4:1-4,2 John 7)

6. The Divine Nature is within the Trinity.(Father, Son and Holy Spirit)

7. Since the Person of Jesus claims the attributes of Divinity(John 3:13,8:58,Matthew 9:2,12:8), then the Person of Jesus is a member of the Trinity.( John 14-16, Math 28:19)

Anything said of either of Christ's two natures applies to the one Person of Christ, so that is how it is said that Christ died on the cross. The term "hypostatic union" refers to the two natures united in the one Person, so anything said of those two natures in the one Person applies to the whole Person. So we see that the Person of Christ is both God and man. The phrase hypostatic union was adopted by the general council at Chalcedon 451 AD. That council declared that the union of two natures is real (against Arius), not a mere indwelling of God in a man (against Nestorius), with a rational soul (against Apollinaris), and that in Christ’s Divine nature remains unchanged (against Eutyches).

hope this helps !!!

@Howie tell me above where you agree or disagree. Why you deny Jesus is a man, human is beyond me. That is unbiblical.
 
Chalcedon said:
Hypostatic Union

1. Jesus is a person.]/b] (1 Tim 2:5)

2. Jesus, the Person, has two natures- Divine and human (John 1:1, 14, 1 Timothy 3:16): Divine and human. This is the Hypostatic Union.( Col 2:9, Heb 1:3; 2:16
Click to expand...

There you go, just what I said -- the PERSON has two natures.



Chalcedon said:
@Howie tell me above where you agree or disagree. Why you deny Jesus is a man, human is beyond me. That is unbiblical.
Click to expand...
Link to where I said, "Jesus isn't a man." ?
 
Chalcedon said:
post #44 in this thread and it works just fine even on my mac- user error on your part.

- On Believing God Changes His Mind about His Decisions...

The statement stands by itself as an assurance to true believers that God does not change -- He is the same yesterday, today and forever ... Heb 13:8 And a believer with a god who changes is not a Christian. ? Let me know when you can find " GOD " does not change. Plus your verse is self...
forums.carm.org
Click to expand...
Here's a link to post #44.

Ooooops ?
 
Chalcedon said:
Which proves I'm 100 % correct.

next
Click to expand...
Here you go:

The Incarnation of the Son of God is the terminology used to describe what happened when the second person of the Trinity, the eternal Son of God, "became flesh" as he was miraculously conceived in the womb of the Virgin Mary according to the Bible. In the incarnation, the divine nature of the Son was perfectly united with human nature in one divine Person. This person, Jesus Christ, was both "truly God and truly man."


source

@Chalcedon
 
Chalcedon said:
You denied it on the Calvinist Arminian forum I quoted in post two in this thread .

still projecting I see . My OP proves I’m 100% correct and you are equivocating. All the lurkers can see it’s true .

next
Click to expand...

I believe it is fair to say that He was making the argument that the Person of Jesus Christ isn't exclusively human. As such, Jesus Christ is still the same yesterday, today and forever.

The human nature of Jesus Christ did not diminish a single quality of Divinity within the Person of Jesus Christ.
 
Chalcedon said:
You denied it on the Calvinist Arminian forum I quoted in post two in this thread .
Click to expand...
No, I didn't. You said it was my post 44 on another thread, and linked to it -- here's the link again my post 44 that's the post to which you're referring, correct?

What I said in that post is what I said in this post. you said the two posts say different things, they SAY THE SAME THING.
 
christ_undivided said:
I believe it is fair to say that He was making the argument that the Person of Jesus Christ isn't exclusively human. As such, Jesus Christ is still the same yesterday, today and forever.

The human nature of Jesus Christ did not diminish a single quality of Divinity within the Person of Jesus Christ.
Click to expand...
I don't need your help.

The person of Jesus is DIVINE. Jesus is a DIVINE PERSON (GOD), with two natures, divine and human. He is fully God and fully man .

That's the incarnation.
 
christ_undivided said:
I believe it is fair to say that He was making the argument that the Person of Jesus Christ isn't exclusively human. As such, Jesus Christ is still the same yesterday, today and forever.

The human nature of Jesus Christ did not diminish a single quality of Divinity within the Person of Jesus Christ.
Click to expand...
I have a separate discussion on the incarnation where God who is spirit ( immaterial) became man ( material ) incorporeal to corporeal . This qualifies as a change :)
 
Howie said:
I don't need your help.

The person of Jesus is DIVINE. Jesus is a DIVINE PERSON (GOD), with two natures, divine and human. He is fully God and fully man .

That's the incarnation.
Click to expand...

I was simply trying to be a peace maker. What is different about what I said and what you just said? That is exactly what I just said.
 
Chalcedon said:
I have a separate discussion on the incarnation where God who is spirit ( immaterial) became man ( material ) incorporeal to corporeal . This qualifies as a change :)
Click to expand...

I know. It is not a change of character. You know that I disagree with you on the immaterial claims you're making.
 
Chalcedon said:
Hypostatic Union

1. Jesus is a person. (1 Tim 2:5)

2. Jesus, the Person, has two natures- Divine and human (John 1:1, 14, 1 Timothy 3:16): Divine and human. This is the Hypostatic Union.( Col 2:9, Heb 1:3,2:16)

3. The Communicatio Idiomatum (Communication of the Properties) states that the attributes of His Divine nature and human nature are both ascribed to the one Person of Jesus. So Jesus can exhibit attributes of Divinity (Omnipresence, Omniscience, Omnipotence, . John 2:23, 3:13, 8:58, He was prayed to in Acts 7:59, John 14:13, He was is worshiped Matt 2:2:11, Rev 5:13-14) and at the same time exhibit attributes of His humanity( He was tempted, ate, prayed,wept, grew in wisdom and stature,was anointed,was baptized, the Father was greater, didn’t know the day or the hour of His Return, He cried My God my God why has Thou forsaken Me, He died etc.). The communicatio idiomatum does not mean that any part of the Divine nature was communicated to the human nature.


4. The Man(anthropos) Jesus is what we perceive (if we were there 2000 years ago in Israel) and through the Man we encounter the Divine nature (Jesus knowing all things, is on earth while in heaven, answers prayer, forgiving sins, etc.).
Click to expand...

First, nowhere in any reliable manuscripts does it say In John 3:13 that Jesus is on earth and in heaven at the same time.

Secondly, Jesus doesn't know everything and he said so himself in John 24:36 "but of that day and hour no man knows, not the angels, nor the Son BUT THE FATHER ONLY".

Or don't you know what the word "only" means as in "but the Father only"?


Then, and once again, you are misinterpreting John 1:1-14 when you think that John is saying that the Logos as God became flesh, for that isn't what he said but rather that the Logos that was God in the beginning later became flesh.

It doesn't say that God became flesh, nor that the Logos as God become flesh and when it says that the Logos became flesh, it means flesh as the Bible defines flesh and not as trins twist this to be meaning, for there is no such thing as flesh as defined in the Bible that it both Divine and human in one being.

Furthermore, nowhere in the whole of the NT where that Greek word translated "became or was made" in John 1:14 is it ever translated to mean that one substance was only added to another while both substances still remained distinct and like your non Biblical "Hypostatic Union Doctrine" states.




 
Yahweh will increase said:
First, nowhere in any reliable manuscripts does it say In John 3:13 that Jesus is on earth and in heaven at the same time.

Secondly, Jesus doesn't know everything and he said so himself in John 24:36 "but of that day and hour no man knows, not the angels, nor the Son BUT THE FATHER ONLY".

Or don't you know what the word "only" means as in "but the Father only"?


Then, and once again, you are misinterpreting John 1:1-14 when you think that John is saying that the Logos as God became flesh, for that isn't what he said but rather that the Logos that was God in the beginning later became flesh.

It doesn't say that God became flesh, nor that the Logos as God become flesh and when it says that the Logos became flesh, it means flesh as the Bible defines flesh and not as trins twist this to be meaning.

Furthermore, nowhere in the whole of the NT where that Greek word translated "became or was made" is it ever translated to mean that one substance was only added to another while both substances still remained distinct and like your non Biblical "Hypostatic Union Doctrine" states.



Click to expand...

John 24? You mean Matt 24.

There are conflicting manuscript evidence. There are early Byzantine tradition texts that do not have "son". Mark 13 may well be a blended text from of a late addition to Matthew.
 
christ_undivided said:
I believe it is fair to say that He was making the argument that the Person of Jesus Christ isn't exclusively human. As such, Jesus Christ is still the same yesterday, today and forever.

The human nature of Jesus Christ did not diminish a single quality of Divinity within the Person of Jesus Christ.
Click to expand...
The words "Jesus is the same yesterday, today and forever" can not mean what you are taking it to mean and nor can it work with your doctrine either.

For according to your doctrine, yesterday Jesus had only one nature of being God alone and today according to your doctrine he has two natures one as God and one as a human being.
 
Chalcedon said:
You denied it on the Calvinist Arminian forum I quoted in post two in this thread .

still projecting I see . My OP proves I’m 100% correct and you are equivocating. All the lurkers can see it’s true .

next
Click to expand...
What did I deny?
 
Chalcedon said:
still projecting I see . My OP proves I’m 100% correct and you are equivocating. All the lurkers can see it’s true .
Click to expand...
Your confusion is one many Protestants have, and that has to do with the "person" Jesus.

In the incarnation, is Jesus one person, or two persons, @Chalcedon?
 
You must log in or register to reply here.
Back
Top