The Immaculate Conception

Mysterium Fidei said:
She immolated Her Son, so that it can be rightly said, that She together with Christ has redeemed the human race” (Admodum probatur, June 20, 1917).
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This title “Co-redemptrix” has received papal sanction by several popes. Pope Benedict XV, teaches: “With Her suffering and dying Son She suffered and almost died, so did She surrender Her mother’s rights over Her Son for the salvation of human beings, and to appease the justice of God, so far as pertained to Her, She immolated Her Son, so that it can be rightly said, that She together with Christ has redeemed the human race” (Admodum probatur, June 20, 1917).
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Mary did what ??????????????????????????????

immolate​

kill or offer as a sacrifice,


W-0-W
is all I can say
 
Mysterium Fidei said:
She immolated Her Son, so that it can be rightly said, that She together with Christ has redeemed the human race” (Admodum probatur, June 20, 1917).
===============================



Mary did what ??????????????????????????????

immolate​

kill or offer as a sacrifice,


W-0-W
is all I can say
Are they saying she committed filicide??? Weren't the Israelites in trouble for sacrificing their children????
 
Are they saying she committed filicide??? Weren't the Israelites in trouble for sacrificing their children????
that was; Yep; guess who
Jezzie-a-Bella
Jezebel the daughter of Ethbaal king of the Zidonians
and her Prophets and Priest of the Groves

when studying all these abominations of these tribes that Lived amongest them
is it any wonder
"all the Abominations of them
will be found in her"
for she is the Mother of them all

Mommy Chouich and Daddy Pope
 
Are they saying she committed filicide??? Weren't the Israelites in trouble for sacrificing their children????
Once again, some Catholics show that they do NOT think through the ramifications of what they post on here!

Years ago, on here, a Catholic wrote that Mary gave us Jesus as the sacrifice for our sins. I proved, using quotes from the Bible (kryptonite for Catholicism) that it is GOD Who gave us Jesus Christ--not Mary.
 
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It has everything to do with Jesus. Enmity (hostility or being opposed to something or someone) existed between Satan (the serpent) and Mary (also a foretelling of the nation of Israel). Notice that Satan has "offspring". What does that refer to? Look at the following:

John 8:44
You are of your father the devil, and the desires of your father you want to do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own resources, for he is a liar and the father of it.
NKJV


We also see Satan and his offspring persecuting and being opposed to the offspring of the "woman" (Israel) throughout scripture. The term "woman" has a dual meaning. Now the offspring of the "woman" which generically Israel and specifically Jesus the Messiah would crush Satan's head while Satan bruised his heel. Nothing in there about sins or being sinless by Mary. That is just more eisegesis on your part and that of your church.
The woman is no other than Mary. In Gal 4:4, St. Paul does not call the Mother of Christ by her own name, “Mary,” but calls her “woman”: God states that there is to be an enmity between the “woman” and the serpent, and this enmity is shared between her seed and its seed. Her seed is the Messiah, who stands in opposition to the seed of the serpent. The mother of the Messiah is said to share the same enmity, total opposition, with Satan.
 
Our Lady has also been given, by the Church, the title of Co-redemptrix. The Holy Office approved the invocation of Mary as Co- redemptrix of the human race on June 26th, 1913, and January 22nd, 1914.

As Mother of the Redeemer, Mary was closely united to Jesus by perfect conformity of will, by humility, by poverty, by suffering; and most particularly by her compassion on Calvary. That is what is meant when it is said that she offered satisfaction along with Him. Her satisfaction derives its value from her dignity as Mother of God, from her great charity, from the fact that there was no fault in herself which needed to be expiated, and from the intensity of her sufferings.

This title “Co-redemptrix” has received papal sanction by several popes. Pope Benedict XV, teaches: “With Her suffering and dying Son She suffered and almost died, so did She surrender Her mother’s rights over Her Son for the salvation of human beings, and to appease the justice of God, so far as pertained to Her, She immolated Her Son, so that it can be rightly said, that She together with Christ has redeemed the human race” (Admodum probatur, June 20, 1917).

Since the word "Co-Redemptrix signifies of itself simple cooperation in the work of redemption, and since It has received in the theological usage of centuries the very precise meaning of secondary and dependent cooperation there can be no serious objection to its use, on condition that
It be accompanied by some expression indicating that Mary's role in this cooperation is secondary and dependent.
This is all nothing but a lot of hooey. Mary offered NO "satisfaction" (I presume this means to God the Father) along with Jesus. There is zero evidence from the Bible for any of this, and this document simply regurgitates Catholic talking points. That is all it has.

BUT IT IS JESUS WHO MADE SATISFACTION FOR OUR SINS!


1 Peter 2:24-25:
"...and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed."

Isaiah 53, in part:

"
He was despised and forsaken of men,
A man of [c]sorrows and acquainted with [d]grief;
And like one from whom men hide their face
He was despised, and we did not esteem Him.
4 Surely our [e]griefs He Himself bore,
And our [f]sorrows He carried;
Yet we ourselves esteemed Him stricken,
[g]Smitten of God, and afflicted.
5 But He was [h]pierced through for our transgressions,
He was crushed for our iniquities;
The chastening for our well-being fell upon Him,
And by His scourging we are healed.


Not one word in these verses about Mary's suffering helping to save us, or help pay for our sins. Jesus bore our sins on the cross. Jesus paid fully for our sins, on the cross. Mary had nothing to do with it.

There seems to be no end to the RCC's blasphemy in its elevating Mary to heights she herself never aspired to.



Source: https://bible.knowing-jesus.com/topics/Carrying-Sin

And Mary didn't "immolate" her Son! That is false! God gave us His Son, and Jesus Himself willingly went to the cross, to pay for our sins completely, so that we can have peace with God and eternal life by grace through faith in Him and what He did for us on the cross.
 
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The woman is no other than Mary. In Gal 4:4, St. Paul does not call the Mother of Christ by her own name, “Mary,” but calls her “woman”:

Which is because Paul was focused on Jesus, not Mary. Catholics could learn a lot from Paul if they would read what he wrote without their Catholic glasses on.
God states that there is to be an enmity between the “woman” and the serpent, and this enmity is shared between her seed and its seed. Her seed is the Messiah, who stands in opposition to the seed of the serpent. The mother of the Messiah is said to share the same enmity, total opposition, with Satan.
ALL Christians are in total opposition with Satan--not just Mary. ALL Christians.
 
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and ram says
check the thread on the immaculate conception.
I posted a question for you.
thanks.
-------------- end ram quote

No ram;
this is the RCC board;
here you post what you believe, and the Protestants ask you questions
are you so lacking in integrity;
you cannot even abide by the rules you agreed to when you signed in for an account;
-------------------------------------

and Ram says
let us start with 'Gen3: 15 And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring[a] and hers; he will crush your head, and you will strike his heel.'

Please tell us how can this be possible if Mary has sins or even just one sin?
================================= end quote

NO ram;
--- you tell them ----
how that can be
#2: just throwing out ole RCC Matra and Propaganda talking points
words of the ECF's et. etc. etc.
is proof of only one thing
all the RCC has is the opinions of Man​
not the Words of the Father​

Ram;
Faith commeth by hearing;
and hearing by """""""The Word of God""""I

not the Words of some PooP-Say
Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception and Bonnie says it as unscriptural.

i am saying it is scriptural and the reason for my post in this thread.
 
More audacious blasphemy from another man that heads the Roman Catholic Church whom all Roman Catholics revere as Jesus Christ on earth - their Supreme Pontiff - the representative of the 2nd Person of the Trinity, - and the very Son of God! all within the Roman Catholic Church!

Belivers in Jesus Christ did not know at first that when Jesus said, "Abide in Me," He was only asking that HIs followers surrender to Him; His almighty love will keep and bless them.
These are 2 things that are rarely if ever taught in depth in the RCC, and those two things are consecration and faith. They are the essential elements of the Christian life - the giving up of all to Jesus, the receiving of all from Jesus. They are implied in each other; they are united in one word: surrender. A full surrender is to obey as well as to trust, and to trust as well as to obey.
It isn't entirely true, that Catholics are not taught much about consecration and faith. They are--taught consecrating themselves to Mary and having faith in her and membership in their church to save them to eternal life....
 
Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception and Bonnie says it as unscriptural.

Because it is. There is no hint of it in Scriptures. Unless you can show it to us FROM the Bible. NOT ECFs or the CCC or from other Catholic writers--from the Bible.
i am saying it is scriptural and the reason for my post in this thread.
Except it isn't. Not even a hint of it, in the Bible.

ALL have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God. In ALL the Bible, ONLY ONE PERSON is ever said to be completely without sin--Jesus Christ.
 
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Catholicism recognizes marital imagery in Luke 1:35.

"The Holy Ghost (who is also called here the power of the Highest) shall come upon thee; it is a phrase which signifieth a special and peculiar influence of the Holy Spirit: thus we read of the prophets, that the Spirit of the Lord came upon them, 2 Chronicles 20:14, &c., which argued a special influence of the Holy Spirit on them, efficacious, so as it put them upon a present prophesying. There is a common influence of God upon the forming of all children in the womb, Job 10:8 Psalm 139:15. But this phrase denotes an extraordinary special influence of the Spirit, changing the order and course of nature, and giving a power to the blood of the virgin by him sanctified, to coagulate alone to the forming of the body of a child: this is more mysteriously yet expressed, by the term overshadow thee, which I take to be a modest phrase, signifying only a supply of man’s act, by a Divine creating power, in a most miraculous manner."
Yes, Catholicism does--the Bible does NOT.

Excuse me, but where does this prove that non-Catholics have made Mary out to be an adulterer/adulteress? There is no marriage imagery in what the angel Gabriel told Mary. He was simply informing her that she would conceive the Messiah in her virgin body by the power of the Holy Spirit. We know that happened because Scripture actually testifies to it!

How then, do we make Mary out to be an adulteress? Because we don't consider the HS her "spouse"? Well, neither does the Bible!

But again, it is Catholicism that makes Mary out to be a bigamist, saying she is "spouse of the HS" while at the same time, she was legally and lawfully married to her beloved Joseph, as her husband, and all that it entails.
 
Then your theology is poor because that is what Scripture reveals.
Scripture reveals no such thing. Mary was NOT "spouse" of the Holy Spirit. She conceived Jesus by the power of the Holy Spirit coming upon her. That does not make Him her "spouse." Nowhere does Scripture even hint at such a thing. That is purely in the unregenerate mind of the powers that have been, in your church.

Your church makes out Mary to be a bigamist, with two husbands--the HS and Joseph. Shameful.
 
let us start with 'Gen3: 15 And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring[a] and hers; He will crush your head, and you will strike his heel.'

Please tell us how can this be possible if Mary has sins or even just one sin?
Who is doing the crushing here? It is the OFFSPRING--Jesus Christ, the Messiah, the "he" in this verse--who will crush Satan's head--and Jesus was and is totally without sin--remember? NOT MARY.

But ALL believers are at enmity with Satan. Every last one of them. And they are sinners, whose faith in Jesus Christ cleanses them from all sin.
 
The woman is no other than Mary. In Gal 4:4, St. Paul does not call the Mother of Christ by her own name, “Mary,” but calls her “woman”: God states that there is to be an enmity between the “woman” and the serpent, and this enmity is shared between her seed and its seed. Her seed is the Messiah, who stands in opposition to the seed of the serpent. The mother of the Messiah is said to share the same enmity, total opposition, with Satan.
You must not have carefully read what I wrote. And again, nothing about Mary being sinless.
 
Yes, Catholicism does--the Bible does NOT.

Excuse me, but where does this prove that non-Catholics have made Mary out to be an adulterer/adulteress? There is no marriage imagery in what the angel Gabriel told Mary. He was simply informing her that she would conceive the Messiah in her virgin body by the power of the Holy Spirit. We know that happened because Scripture actually testifies to it!

How then, do we make Mary out to be an adulteress? Because we don't consider the HS her "spouse"? Well, neither does the Bible!

But again, it is Catholicism that makes Mary out to be a bigamist, saying she is "spouse of the HS" while at the same time, she was legally and lawfully married to her beloved Joseph, as her husband, and all that it entails.
Yes it does because THAT IS WHERE WE FIND THE MARITAL IMAGERY, particularly in the word "overshadow".
 
More audacious blasphemy from another man that heads the Roman Catholic Church whom all Roman Catholics revere as Jesus Christ on earth - their Supreme Pontiff - the representative of the 2nd Person of the Trinity, - and the very Son of God! all within the Roman Catholic Church!

Belivers in Jesus Christ did not know at first that when Jesus said, "Abide in Me," He was only asking that HIs followers surrender to Him; His almighty love will keep and bless them.
These are 2 things that are rarely if ever taught in depth in the RCC, and those two things are consecration and faith. They are the essential elements of the Christian life - the giving up of all to Jesus, the receiving of all from Jesus. They are implied in each other; they are united in one word: surrender. A full surrender is to obey as well as to trust, and to trust as well as to obey.
"For who distinguisheth thee? And what hast thou that thou hast not received? And if thou hast received, why dost thou glory as if thou hadst not received?"

"What shall we say then? Is there injustice with God? God forbid. For he saith to Moses: I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy: and I will shew mercy to whom I will shew mercy. So, then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy."

"And we know that to them that love God, all things work together unto good to such as according to his purpose, are called to be saints. For whom he foreknew, he also predestinated to be made conformable to the image of his Son: that he might be the first-born amongst many brethren. And whom he predestinated, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified."

"Blessed by the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places, in Christ: As he hath chose us in him, before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and unspotted in his sight, in charity. Who hath predestinated us unto the adoption of children, through Jesus Christ, unto himself: according to the purpose of his will, To the praise of the glory of his grace, by which he made us acceptable, in his beloved Son."


God's love is the cause of goodness in created things. We are not good because we love God, we love God because we are good. No one thing would be better than another unless it were not loved more by God.
 
Yes it does because THAT IS WHERE WE FIND THE MARITAL IMAGERY, particularly in the word "overshadow".
Sooo...when hubby and I married, he "overshadowed" me?

Really, this is pure desperation on your part, pilgrim. There is no "marital imagery" in "overshadow".

Catholics apparently will clutch at any straw, no matter how flimsy, to support their heretical beliefs. Like the HS is Mary's spouse. What nonsense! The RCC makes Mary a bigamist, with its "spouse of the HS" nonsense!
 
Sooo...when hubby and I married, he "overshadowed" me?

Really, this is pure desperation on your part, pilgrim. There is no "marital imagery" in "overshadow".

Catholics apparently will clutch at any straw, no matter how flimsy, to support their heretical beliefs. Like the HS is Mary's spouse. What nonsense! The RCC makes Mary a bigamist, with its "spouse of the HS" nonsense!
Yes. Marital imagery.
 
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