The LDS and the Biblical NT theology

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dberrie2020

Well-known member
So why do you run from Smith's junk "translation"?

Your false prophet :

Joseph Smith Translation) of the Bible, Smith ... For instance, in Romans 4:16 the JST states, “ye are justified of faith and works.

You won't man up and admit false teaching?

So--are you claiming the Bible postulates "false teaching"?

James 2:24----King James Version
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
 

Theo1689

Well-known member
So--are you claiming the Bible postulates "false teaching"?

No, he is claiming that the Joseph Smith garbage translation is "false teaching", not authentic Bibles.

But of course, Mormons already know this, since they don't quote the garbage JST, they quote the KJV.

James 2:24----King James Version
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

This has been explained to you ten million times. I don't know why you feel the need to ignore the response and waste everyone's time posting the same question over and over, as if it's never been addressed.

Righteousness comes by FAITH, not by "works":

Rom. 3:22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction:

Rom. 3:26 It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.

Rom. 4:5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,

Rom. 4:9 Is this blessing then only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? For we say that faith was counted to Abraham as righteousness.

Rom. 4:13 For the promise to Abraham and his offspring that he would be heir of the world did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith.

Rom. 9:30 What shall we say, then? That Gentiles who did not pursue righteousness have attained it, that is, a righteousness that is by faith;

Rom. 10:6 But the righteousness based on faith says, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’” (that is, to bring Christ down)

Gal. 3:11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.”

Phil. 3:9 and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith


So we see two things:

1) Either the Scriptures are contradictory (in which case you would have to do work to demonstrate why your interpretation of James 2 is correct, and ALL these other Scriptures (including Eph. 2:8-9, Tit. 2:13, 2 Tim. 1:9, Rom. 4:1-6, Rom. 11:5-6, etc. etc.) are in error;

or

2) Your interpretation of James 2 is wrong.

And your interpretation of James 2 IS wrong (as I've shown you hundreds of time).

James 2:24----King James Version
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

The place where it says, "You see then" indicates that this statement is a conclusion based on what preceded it. In this instance, the word "justified" means "vindicated", or "proven right". One's works "prove" that the man's claim of faith was true and authentic. As James wrote earlier:

James 2:18 ... I will show you my faith by my works.

A tree produces apples BECAUSE it is (already) an apple tree.
The apples are its "fruits".
The tree does not produce apples to "become" an apple tree.
It is already an apple tree. The apples produce simply demonstrate that.

In the same way,
A saved man produces works BECAUSE he (already) has faith.
The works are its "fruits".
He doesn't do works to "become" saved.
He is already saved. His fruits simply demonstrates the faith which saved him.
 

Bonnie

Super Member
No, he is claiming that the Joseph Smith garbage translation is "false teaching", not authentic Bibles.

But of course, Mormons already know this, since they don't quote the garbage JST, they quote the KJV.



This has been explained to you ten million times. I don't know why you feel the need to ignore the response and waste everyone's time posting the same question over and over, as if it's never been addressed.

Righteousness comes by FAITH, not by "works":

Rom. 3:22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction:

Rom. 3:26 It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.

Rom. 4:5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,

Rom. 4:9 Is this blessing then only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? For we say that faith was counted to Abraham as righteousness.

Rom. 4:13 For the promise to Abraham and his offspring that he would be heir of the world did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith.

Rom. 9:30 What shall we say, then? That Gentiles who did not pursue righteousness have attained it, that is, a righteousness that is by faith;

Rom. 10:6 But the righteousness based on faith says, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’” (that is, to bring Christ down)

Gal. 3:11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.”

Phil. 3:9 and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith


So we see two things:

1) Either the Scriptures are contradictory (in which case you would have to do work to demonstrate why your interpretation of James 2 is correct, and ALL these other Scriptures (including Eph. 2:8-9, Tit. 2:13, 2 Tim. 1:9, Rom. 4:1-6, Rom. 11:5-6, etc. etc.) are in error;

or

2) Your interpretation of James 2 is wrong.

And your interpretation of James 2 IS wrong (as I've shown you hundreds of time).

James 2:24----King James Version
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

The place where it says, "You see then" indicates that this statement is a conclusion based on what preceded it. In this instance, the word "justified" means "vindicated", or "proven right". One's works "prove" that the man's claim of faith was true and authentic. As James wrote earlier:

James 2:18 ... I will show you my faith by my works.

A tree produces apples BECAUSE it is (already) an apple tree.
The apples are its "fruits".
The tree does not produce apples to "become" an apple tree.
It is already an apple tree. The apples produce simply demonstrate that.

In the same way,
A saved man produces works BECAUSE he (already) has faith.
The works are its "fruits".
He doesn't do works to "become" saved.
He is already saved. His fruits simply demonstrates the faith which saved him.
The "why the need" is in the list of debate tactics Mormons use, that is in my signature (when it shows up). We see them over and over again on here...don't we?
 

dberrie2020

Well-known member
No, he is claiming that the Joseph Smith garbage translation is "false teaching", not authentic Bibles.
Here is his quote:

Authentic Nouveau said: So why do you run from Smith's junk "translation"?

Your false prophet :

Joseph Smith Translation) of the Bible, Smith ... For instance, in Romans 4:16 the JST states, “ye are justified of faith and works.

You won't man up and admit false teaching?

So--if that is false--where does that leave the Biblical testimony?

James 2:24----King James Version
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
 
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