The most important doctrine in Scripture- The bodily Resurrection of Jesus !

Then you agree with the JW cult just like I said you did seth.
That would depend on what the claim His body is. You cannot say two people agree, when all they agree on is what something is not. So tell me, how do they describe His eternal. non-flesh body? Then I can tell you if I agree.
 
That would depend on what the claim His body is. You cannot say two people agree, when all they agree on is what something is not. So tell me, how do they describe His eternal. non-flesh body? Then I can tell you if I agree.
I’ll quote you from the old forum

Originally Posted by civic

[The JW’s are emphatic on the point that Jesus could not have been raised in a physical body and they go out of their way to make sure of this. “He Jesus merely materialized flesh and blood to be seen and believed” (Make Sure of all Things p.314 1953 Ed.) “We deny that he raised in the flesh, and challenge any statement to that effect as being unscriptural.” (The Finished Mystery p.57 1917) “Having given up his flesh for the life of the world, Christ could never take it again and become a man once more” (You can live in Paradise on Earth p.169 1982)


sethproton responds:

As much as it embarrasses me to have to agree with this statement, i think it more closely represents what I see in scripture than what i've been taught for 40 years. Of course the JW's have other doctrines which I don't see in the word.



http://forums.carm.org/vbb/showthre...a-human-body&p=3454460&viewfull=1#post3454460
 
I’ll quote you from the old forum

Originally Posted by civic

[The JW’s are emphatic on the point that Jesus could not have been raised in a physical body and they go out of their way to make sure of this. “He Jesus merely materialized flesh and blood to be seen and believed” (Make Sure of all Things p.314 1953 Ed.) “We deny that he raised in the flesh, and challenge any statement to that effect as being unscriptural.” (The Finished Mystery p.57 1917) “Having given up his flesh for the life of the world, Christ could never take it again and become a man once more” (You can live in Paradise on Earth p.169 1982)


sethproton responds:

As much as it embarrasses me to have to agree with this statement, i think it more closely represents what I see in scripture than what i've been taught for 40 years. Of course the JW's have other doctrines which I don't see in the word.



http://forums.carm.org/vbb/showthre...a-human-body&p=3454460&viewfull=1#post3454460
And you read that statement of mine to say that I am aligned with JW doctrine. How does "this closely represents what I see" mean that I have bought into JW doctrine? I agree with them that Jesus was not in the same body He died in. You would have to be blind to think that what the disciples saw after He resurrected was His human fleshly body. Nobody ever recognizes His face or His voice. nobody knows who He is.
In every case, "something" happens, we don't know what, where the disciples realize who He is, but no one recognizes Him by His face or voice. You have had this pointed out to you maybe 20 times, and you have never even tried to refute it, yet you still teach Jesus was in the same body when He rose.
Cognative dissonance.
 
No, I meant the idea they were longing for bodies seemed very strange. Although you make an interesting point as well.
Yes, I have wondered about that part too, thinking that being with Christ would appear to satisfy every need, despite not having yet received the new body from Heaven
 
There is absolutely nothing about wanting or needing new bodies there that I can see.

Where did you find this strange idea?
I will have to go back and look, it has been years since I looked at that section, and maybe I have mixed it up with some other passage.
After I look i will get back to you.
Yes, you are right. I have remembered that wrong or confused it with some other passage. Thanks, I appreciate the correction
 
And you read that statement of mine to say that I am aligned with JW doctrine. How does "this closely represents what I see" mean that I have bought into JW doctrine? I agree with them that Jesus was not in the same body He died in. You would have to be blind to think that what the disciples saw after He resurrected was His human fleshly body. Nobody ever recognizes His face or His voice. nobody knows who He is.
In every case, "something" happens, we don't know what, where the disciples realize who He is, but no one recognizes Him by His face or voice. You have had this pointed out to you maybe 20 times, and you have never even tried to refute it, yet you still teach Jesus was in the same body when He rose.
Cognative dissonance.
More evidence with your JW alignment on the Resurrection.

Here are your OWN WORDS which back up my claim from the old forum.

this may be one place where you and I differ. The more i study these related passages, the more I see that Christ was only a man until He died and His blood mediated the New Covenant. My current understanding was that as soon as He was shed of the human body, he was no longer human. Of course this is too deep for any of us to fully understand, and i can't claim to have it figured out, but what i see leads me this way.

It would be strange if I ended up having some overlap with JW's. And I don't know exactly what they think or how they describe what they think. I doubt I would get a sober, sensible description from the folks on this forum, they are so hot to destroy every heretic they never even try to understand what is being said. reminds me of the Black listing by the FBI. Substance and truth was never the issue, and here we can just be grateful they aren't allowed to burn us at the stake.

http://forums.carm.org/vbb/showthre...Jesus-part-3&p=4198505&viewfull=1#post4198505


“it is a spiritual body and not a physical body of flesh and bone.”

“Since the Bible teaches that all things physical will be annihilated, or rolled up like a garment and discarded, that would be the logical conclusion concerning the physical body Christ had before the resurrection.”

What do you find sad about saying that God for a while took on flesh, a body prepared for a limited time and as one of us lived perfect and died securing for us a new covenant with the Father and then taking back up what He had laid down, returning to His former glory with the Father. What is sad about that?

http://forums.carm.org/vbb/showthread.php?141903-The-Bodily-Resurrection-of-Jesus-part-3/page49


conclusion: These ideas above are straight out of the JW teachings. They teach verbatim His body was annihilated or rolled up like a garment and discarded. They made up that phrase. The JWs invented is seth. So quit playing dumb.

hope this helps !!!
 
More evidence with your JW alignment on the Resurrection.

Here are your OWN WORDS which back up my claim from the old forum.

this may be one place where you and I differ. The more i study these related passages, the more I see that Christ was only a man until He died and His blood mediated the New Covenant. My current understanding was that as soon as He was shed of the human body, he was no longer human. Of course this is too deep for any of us to fully understand, and i can't claim to have it figured out, but what i see leads me this way.

It would be strange if I ended up having some overlap with JW's. And I don't know exactly what they think or how they describe what they think. I doubt I would get a sober, sensible description from the folks on this forum, they are so hot to destroy every heretic they never even try to understand what is being said. reminds me of the Black listing by the FBI. Substance and truth was never the issue, and here we can just be grateful they aren't allowed to burn us at the stake.

http://forums.carm.org/vbb/showthre...Jesus-part-3&p=4198505&viewfull=1#post4198505


“it is a spiritual body and not a physical body of flesh and bone.”

“Since the Bible teaches that all things physical will be annihilated, or rolled up like a garment and discarded, that would be the logical conclusion concerning the physical body Christ had before the resurrection.”

What do you find sad about saying that God for a while took on flesh, a body prepared for a limited time and as one of us lived perfect and died securing for us a new covenant with the Father and then taking back up what He had laid down, returning to His former glory with the Father. What is sad about that?

http://forums.carm.org/vbb/showthread.php?141903-The-Bodily-Resurrection-of-Jesus-part-3/page49


conclusion: These ideas above are straight out of the JW teachings. They teach verbatim His body was annihilated or rolled up like a garment and discarded. They made up that phrase. The JWs invented is seth. So quit playing dumb.

hope this helps !!!
One thing that jumps out which demonstrates your blindness is that you quote me talking about how the more I study the bible the more i understand, then you claim I study JW literature. If you are going to pretend I said something, it would be smarter not to post what i actually said.
 
One thing that jumps out which demonstrates your blindness is that you quote me talking about how the more I study the bible the more i understand, then you claim I study JW literature. If you are going to pretend I said something, it would be smarter not to post what i actually said.
Your words are verbatim from the JWs. That is plagiarism .
 
Again you brought up Phil 3 concerning our state. When I pointed out to you it was about our state not our body, you dropped it. That's who you are. It your pat answers fail, you have nothing
All the Fulness of Deity dwells in Him (permanently) as per Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9.


This is how the passage reads and how it is to be understood in its " CONTEXT " from Colossians 1:19;2:9 concerning Christ being fully God lacking nothing in His Divinity while on this earth and His Ascension and also His humanity which remains permanent. The Incarnation was not temporal but Christ remains forever God in the flesh. All the fulness of Deity remains bodily.

In Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9 the Apostle Paul said, For in HIM (CHRIST) ALL of the “ fullness of deity dwells bodily. “Did Paul use the word fullness there to mean partially? NO as Jesus did not empty Himself of His Deity. Jesus Divinity is FULL, complete lacking in nothing. The ENTIRE Fullness of Deity dwells (is present) bodily in Jesus. In Colossians 1:19 it is describing His earthly ministry and Colossians 2:9 it is describing His Post Resurrection/Ascension Glory as God Incarnate.


Colossians 1:19-20
For it was the Father’s good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him,20 and through Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether things on earth or things in heaven

Colossians 2:9-10- For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,10 and in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over all rule and authority;

Colossians 3:1- Therefore if you have been raised up with Christ, keep seeking the things above, where Christ is, seated at the right hand of God.

Paul is talking in Colossians chapters 2-3 about the glorified resurrected Christ now seated at the right hand of God not the earthly Christ pre resurrection. This is a slam dunk that He is in a human glorified resurrection body and that He continues to have all the fullness of Deity dwelling bodily in the present.

Now read the Greek below on the present ongoing meaning of DWELLS . The bodily dwelling of Deity is permanent not temporary. The Incarnation was PERMANENT.

κατοικεῖ (katoikei)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's Greek 2730: To dwell in, settle in, be established in (permanently), inhabit. From kata and oikeo; to house permanently, i.e. Reside.

8.2 σωματικός, ή, όν; σωματικῶςa: (derivatives of σῶμαa ‘body,’ 8.1) pertaining to a physical body—‘bodily, physical, bodily form.’[1] Louw Nida

Expositor's Greek Testament
Colossians 2:9. in Him and in Him alone.—κατοικεῖ: “permanently dwells”. The reference is to the Exalted State, not only on account of the present, but of the context and Paul’s Christology generally.—πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα τῆς θεότητος: “all the fulness of the Godhead”. πᾶν is emphatic, the whole fulness dwells in Christ.

“Dwelleth” is katoikei (κατοικει). Oikeō (Ὀικεω) means “to be at home.” Kata (Κατα), prefixed, means “down,” thus showing permanence. The compound verb was used of the permanent residents of a town as compared with the transient community. The verb is in the present tense, showing durative action. The translation reads: “Because in Him there is continuously and permanently at home all the fulness of the Godhead in bodily fashion.”

conclusion: case closed seth once again your bodiless on human JW false christ has been exposed. once again I have demonstrated exegetical principles whereas all you have are non biblical human ideas void of truth.

hope this helps !!!
 
All the Fulness of Deity dwells in Him (permanently) as per Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9.


This is how the passage reads and how it is to be understood in its " CONTEXT " from Colossians 1:19;2:9 concerning Christ being fully God lacking nothing in His Divinity while on this earth and His Ascension and also His humanity which remains permanent. The Incarnation was not temporal but Christ remains forever God in the flesh. All the fulness of Deity remains bodily.

In Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9 the Apostle Paul said, For in HIM (CHRIST) ALL of the “ fullness of deity dwells bodily. “Did Paul use the word fullness there to mean partially? NO as Jesus did not empty Himself of His Deity. Jesus Divinity is FULL, complete lacking in nothing. The ENTIRE Fullness of Deity dwells (is present) bodily in Jesus. In Colossians 1:19 it is describing His earthly ministry and Colossians 2:9 it is describing His Post Resurrection/Ascension Glory as God Incarnate.


Colossians 1:19-20
For it was the Father’s good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him,20 and through Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether things on earth or things in heaven

Colossians 2:9-10- For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,10 and in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over all rule and authority;

Colossians 3:1- Therefore if you have been raised up with Christ, keep seeking the things above, where Christ is, seated at the right hand of God.

Paul is talking in Colossians chapters 2-3 about the glorified resurrected Christ now seated at the right hand of God not the earthly Christ pre resurrection. This is a slam dunk that He is in a human glorified resurrection body and that He continues to have all the fullness of Deity dwelling bodily in the present.

Now read the Greek below on the present ongoing meaning of DWELLS . The bodily dwelling of Deity is permanent not temporary. The Incarnation was PERMANENT.

κατοικεῖ (katoikei)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's Greek 2730: To dwell in, settle in, be established in (permanently), inhabit. From kata and oikeo; to house permanently, i.e. Reside.

8.2 σωματικός, ή, όν; σωματικῶςa: (derivatives of σῶμαa ‘body,’ 8.1) pertaining to a physical body—‘bodily, physical, bodily form.’[1] Louw Nida

Expositor's Greek Testament
Colossians 2:9. in Him and in Him alone.—κατοικεῖ: “permanently dwells”. The reference is to the Exalted State, not only on account of the present, but of the context and Paul’s Christology generally.—πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα τῆς θεότητος: “all the fulness of the Godhead”. πᾶν is emphatic, the whole fulness dwells in Christ.

“Dwelleth” is katoikei (κατοικει). Oikeō (Ὀικεω) means “to be at home.” Kata (Κατα), prefixed, means “down,” thus showing permanence. The compound verb was used of the permanent residents of a town as compared with the transient community. The verb is in the present tense, showing durative action. The translation reads: “Because in Him there is continuously and permanently at home all the fulness of the Godhead in bodily fashion.”

conclusion: case closed seth once again your bodiless on human JW false christ has been exposed. once again I have demonstrated exegetical principles whereas all you have are non biblical human ideas void of truth.

hope this helps !!!
Exactly Civic, this is your method. Either ignore truth you cannot answer, or flood your text with scripture and comments that are meant to conceal the fact that you have nothing valid to contribute.
 
Exactly Civic, this is your method. Either ignore truth you cannot answer, or flood your text with scripture and comments that are meant to conceal the fact that you have nothing valid to contribute.
Interesting how Jesus bodily Resurrection means nothing to you and the exegetical truth presented is rejected by you. That is the very confession of antichrist. You cannot confess Jesus has come and remains in the flesh as per 1 John 4:2-3, 2 John 7.

Also I noticed you RAN AWAY once again from the scripture and exegesis that was presented to you regarding Jesus present humanity.

FYI- All the Greek Experts/Scholars are in agreement with me and oppose your HERETICAL beliefs about Christ no longer being a man. You have no MEDIATOR for your sins as per 1 Timothy 2:5 since you reject His present role as a Mediator who is MAN. Since like the JW's you believe he is a spirit creature.

See spot run..............

hope this helps !!!
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Interesting how Jesus bodily Resurrection means nothing to you and the exegetical truth presented is rejected by you. That is the very confession of antichrist. You cannot confess Jesus has come and remains in the flesh as per 1 John 4:2-3, 2 John 7.

hope this helps !!!
Thanks Civic. Others should realize the error of your method here. The verse 1 John 4:2 says "By this you know the Spirit of God, every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God"

You add to the verse "and that Jesus remains in the flesh"
How can you be so adamantly wrong, when your doctrine is based on something you yourself added to scripture?
 
Thanks Civic. Others should realize the error of your method here. The verse 1 John 4:2 says "By this you know the Spirit of God, every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God"

You add to the verse "and that Jesus remains in the flesh"
How can you be so adamantly wrong, when your doctrine is based on something you yourself added to scripture?
All the GREEK EXPERTS agree with me concerning 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 7. Since Greek is foreign to you just as English its no wonder you cannot comprehend and understand Scripture since you deny the bodily Resurrection/Ascension of Jesus which is you one and only hope of salvation.

This is how we can tell the spirit of truth from the spirit of antichrist. Can you confess Jesus is God Incarnate?

1 John 4:2
By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God;

2 John 7
For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist.


Erchomenon the present participle in 2 John 7


Alford
- the present tense is timeless(pg 274 RNTC on 2 John)

Brooke- the Incarnation is not only an event in history, it is an abiding truth(pg 274 RNTC on 2 John)

Stott- the two natures manhood and Godhood were united already at His birth, never to be divided. In 1 John 4:2 and here in 2 John 7 emphasizes this permanent union of the natures in the One Person ( TNTC pages 209-210) He who denies the Incarnation is not just a deceiver and an antichrist but “the deceiver and the antichrist”. There is in this heresy a double affront: it opposes Christ and deceives men.(stott TNCT page 210)

Marshall- the use of the present and perfect tenses becomes significant if the point is that Jesus Christ had come and still existed “in flesh”. For him(John) it was axiomatic that there had been a true Incarnation, that the word became flesh and remained flesh. It is a point that receives much stress in 1 John 2:18-28;4:1-6;5:5-8. (NICNT pages 70-71)

Smalley- the present tense emphasizes the permanent union of the human and Divine natures in Jesus. Gods self disclosure in Jesus took place at a particular moment in history , but it has continuing effects in the present and into the future(Word Biblical Commentary page 317)

Nicoll- the continuous manifestation of the Incarnate Christ(Expositors Greek Testament Volume 5 page 202)

Akin- Much has been made of the fact that John uses the present tense in this Christological confession. Literally the verse reads, “Jesus Christ coming in flesh.” “Coming” is a present active participle. This stands out in remarkable contrast to the affirmation of 1 John 4:2, where the text states that “Jesus Christ has [emphasis mine] come in the flesh.” There the perfect active participle is used. The key, it seems, is to discover what John is affirming. Here in 2 John the emphasis falls on the abiding reality of the incarnation. First John 4:2 teaches that the Christ, the Father’s Son (v. 3), has come in the flesh. Second John affirms that the wedding of deity and humanity has an abiding reality (cf. 1 Tim 2:5). The ontological and essential nature of the incarnation that would receive eloquent expression one thousand years later in the writing of St. Anselm (1033–1109) in his classic Cur Deus Homo is already present in seed form in the tiny and neglected letter of 2 John.

Lenski- In 1 John 4:2 we have ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα, the perfect participle, “as having come in flesh” (incarnate, John 1:14); here we have ἐρχόμενον ἐν σαρκί, “as coming in flesh,” although the participle is present in form it is really timeless.of Christ as "still being manifested." See the note at 1 John 3:5. In 1 John 4:2 we have the manifestation treated as a past fact by the perfect tense, ‎eleeluthota ‎"has come

Robertson- That Jesus Christ cometh in the flesh Ieesoun ‎‎Christon ‎‎erchomenon ‎‎en ‎‎sarki‎. "Jesus Christ coming in the flesh." Present middle participle of ‎erchomai treating the Incarnation as a continuing fact which the Docetic Gnostics flatly denied. In 1 John 4:2 we have ‎eleeluthota ‎(perfect active participle) in this same construction with ‎homologeoo‎, because there the reference is to the definite historical fact of the Incarnation.

Vincent-
Is come erchomenon‎. Wrong. The verb is in the present participle, "coming," which describes the manhood
 
Greetings again Sethproton,

You misquoted me as saying "The word in the NAS "condition" is defined:" I am not sure what word you are speaking about, but it is not the word translated changed.

Quoting again the two passages, Philippians 3:20-21 indicates to me that when Jesus returns from heaven he is going to change or transform our present weak, frail and prone to sin body, and the means whereby he is going to achieve this is by the power of the Holy Spirit that he has been given to him by God the Father, and using this power our bodies will be transformed into the likeness of his glorious body. Also seeing you are a Greek expert could you consider the two Greek words that are translated change, changed in the KJV which you claimed to mean exchange.

Kind regards
Trevor
Excellent !
 
Greetings again Sethproton and Greetings SeventhDay,

Well yes, this is my understanding of Philippians 3:20-21 and I have already mentioned that I understand the word to mean change or transform not exchange.

I understand that it speaks possibly using metonymy where the cause is put for the effect, or similar. Jesus will return, and he will have the power to transform our bodies. He does not bring a new body, but the power to transform our mortal body. The following uses the concept of "life" in a similar way, and this will be immortal life.

Colossians 3:1–4 (KJV): 1 If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God. 2 Set your affection on things above, not on things on the earth. 3 For ye are dead, and your life is hid with Christ in God. 4 When Christ, who is our life, shall appear, then shall ye also appear with him in glory.


Please refer above for my comments on "exchange". It is interesting that SDAs do not accept immortal souls, but they believe that the physical body will be replaced by a spiritual body, and this seems to be that this body is without physical substance. I believe that the spiritual body is the body that is raised or present at the return of Jesus, then it it is transformed into a spiritual body, having substance and similar to our present bodies but no longer dependent on air and food. When the Angels appeared they were mistaken as men at first. I base of my understanding on the following references:
Job 19:25–27 (KJV): 25 For I know that my redeemer liveth, and that he shall stand at the latter day upon the earth: 26 And though after my skin worms destroy this body, yet in my flesh shall I see God: 27 Whom I shall see for myself, and mine eyes shall behold, and not another; though my reins be consumed within me.

Job 33:23–25 (KJV): 23 If there be a messenger with him, an interpreter, one among a thousand, to shew unto man his uprightness: 24 Then he is gracious unto him, and saith, Deliver him from going down to the pit: I have found a ransom. 25 His flesh shall be fresher than a child’s: he shall return to the days of his youth:


Kind regards
Trevor
Well said Trevor as this is historical and biblical Christian faith and doctrine.
 
All the GREEK EXPERTS agree with me concerning 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 7. Since Greek is foreign to you just as English its no wonder you cannot comprehend and understand Scripture since you deny the bodily Resurrection/Ascension of Jesus which is you one and only hope of salvation.

This is how we can tell the spirit of truth from the spirit of antichrist. Can you confess Jesus is God Incarnate?

1 John 4:2
By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God;

2 John 7
For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist.


Erchomenon the present participle in 2 John 7


Alford
- the present tense is timeless(pg 274 RNTC on 2 John)

Brooke- the Incarnation is not only an event in history, it is an abiding truth(pg 274 RNTC on 2 John)

Stott- the two natures manhood and Godhood were united already at His birth, never to be divided. In 1 John 4:2 and here in 2 John 7 emphasizes this permanent union of the natures in the One Person ( TNTC pages 209-210) He who denies the Incarnation is not just a deceiver and an antichrist but “the deceiver and the antichrist”. There is in this heresy a double affront: it opposes Christ and deceives men.(stott TNCT page 210)

Marshall- the use of the present and perfect tenses becomes significant if the point is that Jesus Christ had come and still existed “in flesh”. For him(John) it was axiomatic that there had been a true Incarnation, that the word became flesh and remained flesh. It is a point that receives much stress in 1 John 2:18-28;4:1-6;5:5-8. (NICNT pages 70-71)

Smalley- the present tense emphasizes the permanent union of the human and Divine natures in Jesus. Gods self disclosure in Jesus took place at a particular moment in history , but it has continuing effects in the present and into the future(Word Biblical Commentary page 317)

Nicoll- the continuous manifestation of the Incarnate Christ(Expositors Greek Testament Volume 5 page 202)

Akin- Much has been made of the fact that John uses the present tense in this Christological confession. Literally the verse reads, “Jesus Christ coming in flesh.” “Coming” is a present active participle. This stands out in remarkable contrast to the affirmation of 1 John 4:2, where the text states that “Jesus Christ has [emphasis mine] come in the flesh.” There the perfect active participle is used. The key, it seems, is to discover what John is affirming. Here in 2 John the emphasis falls on the abiding reality of the incarnation. First John 4:2 teaches that the Christ, the Father’s Son (v. 3), has come in the flesh. Second John affirms that the wedding of deity and humanity has an abiding reality (cf. 1 Tim 2:5). The ontological and essential nature of the incarnation that would receive eloquent expression one thousand years later in the writing of St. Anselm (1033–1109) in his classic Cur Deus Homo is already present in seed form in the tiny and neglected letter of 2 John.

Lenski- In 1 John 4:2 we have ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα, the perfect participle, “as having come in flesh” (incarnate, John 1:14); here we have ἐρχόμενον ἐν σαρκί, “as coming in flesh,” although the participle is present in form it is really timeless.of Christ as "still being manifested." See the note at 1 John 3:5. In 1 John 4:2 we have the manifestation treated as a past fact by the perfect tense, ‎eleeluthota ‎"has come

Robertson- That Jesus Christ cometh in the flesh Ieesoun ‎‎Christon ‎‎erchomenon ‎‎en ‎‎sarki‎. "Jesus Christ coming in the flesh." Present middle participle of ‎erchomai treating the Incarnation as a continuing fact which the Docetic Gnostics flatly denied. In 1 John 4:2 we have ‎eleeluthota ‎(perfect active participle) in this same construction with ‎homologeoo‎, because there the reference is to the definite historical fact of the Incarnation.

Vincent-
Is come erchomenon‎. Wrong. The verb is in the present participle, "coming," which describes the manhood
This does not change what the verse actually states. funny how you made a big deal about me getting the verse numbers wrong (which is meaningless) but here you intentionally misquote scripture and think nothing about it.
 
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