The "one Lord" in reference to Jesus being YHWH (1 Corinthians 8:6)

Fred

Well-known member
1 Corinthians 8:6
yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him (NASB)

Although sometimes referred to in order to demonstrate the Lord Jesus is not God, 1 Corinthians 8:6 does in fact teach the Lord Jesus is God (YHWH).

Immediately after Paul affirmed the "one Lord" in 1 Corinthians 8:6, the Greek word for 'consience' (syneidesis) is used several times in 1 Corinthians 8. Thus, Paul's use of both 'Lord' and 'conscience' is linked. This is very important because Paul returns to associating the 'Lord' with 'conscience' in 1 Corinthians 10.
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:12 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:25 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:27 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:28 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:29 'conscience' (syneidesis)
The 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 8:6 is therefore the same 'Lord' (in reference to Jesus) in 1 Corinthians 10:21, 22, 26 where 'conscience' is employed in the same context several times. In fact, Paul specifically affirms wounding another believer's conscience involves sinning "against Christ" (1 Corinthians 8:12). Furthermore, the expression "things sacrificed to idols" (or something very similar; cf. Greek: eidōlothytos) in 1 Corinthians 8 is also used in 1 Corinthians 10 in connection with the 'Lord'.
1 Corinthians 8:1 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:4 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'sacrificed to an idol' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:19 'a thing sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:28 'sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)

Paul's usage of the "Lord" in 1 Corinthians 10:22 is drawn from Old Testament passages in reference to the worship of the Lord (YHWH) in contradistinction to the worship rendered unto idols ("provoke the Lord to jealousy").
Exodus 34:14-15 - YHWH's name is 'Jealous'/the eating of idolatrous sacrifice is involved.
Deuteronomy 4:24-25 - jealous/provoke
Deuteronomy 6:15 - this theme of jealousy is in relation to the one Lord (YHWH) of Deuteronomy 6:4.
1 Kings 14:22-23 - provoked/jealousy
Psalm 78:58 - provoked/jealousy

Instead of worshiping idols, the believer is to worship Jesus as being the 'Lord' (YHWH).
 
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Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
1 Corinthians 8:6
yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him (NASB)

Although sometimes referred to in order to demonstrate the Lord Jesus is not God, 1 Corinthians 8:6 does in fact teach the Lord Jesus is God (YHWH).

Immediately after Paul affirmed the "one Lord" in 1 Corinthians 8:6, the Greek word for 'consience' (syneidesis) is used several times in 1 Corinthians 8. Thus, Paul's use of both 'Lord' and 'conscience' is linked. This is very important because Paul returns to associating the 'Lord' with 'conscience' in 1 Corinthians 10.
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:12 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:25 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:27 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:28 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:29 'conscience' (syneidesis)
The 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 8:6 is therefore the same 'Lord' (in reference to Jesus) in 1 Corinthians 10:21, 22, 26 where 'conscience' is employed in the same context several times. In fact, Paul specifically affirms wounding another believer's conscience involves sinning "against Christ" (1 Corinthians 8:12). Furthermore, the expression "things sacrificed to idols" (or something very similar; cf. Greek: eidōlothytos) in 1 Corinthians 8 is also used in 1 Corinthians 10 in connection with the 'Lord'.
1 Corinthians 8:1 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:4 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'sacrificed to an idol' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:19 'a thing sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:28 'sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)

Paul's usage of the "Lord" in 1 Corinthians 10:22 is drawn from Old Testament passages in reference to the worship of the Lord (YHWH) in contradistinction to the worship rendered unto idols ("provoke the Lord to jealousy").
Exodus 34:14-15 - YHWH's name is 'Jealous'/the eating of idolatrous sacrifice is involved.
Deuteronomy 4:24-25 - jealous/provoke
Deuteronomy 6:15 - this theme of jealousy is in relation to the one Lord (YHWH) of Deuteronomy 6:4.
1 Kings 14:22-23 - provoked/jealousy
Psalm 78:58 - provoked/jealousy

Instead of worshiping idols, the believer is to worship Jesus as being the 'Lord' (YHWH).
Sorry but because Paul in 1 Corinthians 8:6 attaches the title of Father to the one God of us and then also attaches the name and title of Jesus Christ to the one Lord of us, therefore the one God cannot be the one Lord any more than God the Father can be Jesus Christ or Jesus Christ can be God the Father in the verse.

Therefore Paul is in total agreement with Jesus' own words in John 17:3 "This is eternal life, that they might know you (Father) The Only True God and Jesus the Christ whom you have sent".

Concerning 1 Corinthians 8:12, of course those who damage another brothers conscience sin against Christ, for Christ died for them also.


Let me ask you, can the Father also be the one Lord Jesus Christ?

Are the Father and Jesus Christ the same persons?

What you trins and oneness fail to understand is that there is the Divine Lord and there is the human Lord and the word God in 1 Corinthians 8:6 already encompasses the Father as the Divine Lord and therefore when Paul said "and one Lord Jesus Christ" he is referring to Jesus as the only human Lord over us while God the Father is the only Divine Lord over us.

They are two different Lords, one is the Divine Almighty and the other is the man who God made both Lord and Christ over us.


Acts 2:36 “Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Messiah.”


Therefore the word Lord in this passages has to refer to the human Lord Jesus Christ and not the Divine LORD Yahweh God.


You are reading into this what you want these texts to mean instead of seeking and asking and waiting upon God to reveal to you what they really do mean and like what is usual for trins and oneness also.
 
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Fred

Well-known member
Yo
Sorry but because Paul in 1 Corinthians 8:6 attaches the title of Father to the one God of us and then also attaches the name and title of Jesus Christ to the one Lord of us, therefore the one God cannot be the one Lord any more than God the Father can be Jesus Christ or Jesus Christ can be God the Father in the verse.
You should be sorry because (1) I never claimed that Jesus is the Father, and (2) you ignored the fact that Paul applied YHWH from the Old Testament unto the Lord Jesus several times in chapter 10 concerning the worship He is to receive.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Yo

You should be sorry becauae (1) I never claimed that Jesus is the Father, and (2) you ignored the fact that Paul applied YHWH from the Old Testament unto the Lord Jesus several times in chapter 10 concerning the worship He is to receive.
No he didn't apply Yahweh of the OT to Jesus but rather he is revealing that our devotion to Yahweh only comes through his one and only mediator the Lord Jesus Christ.

Just like in the OT with the type of Christ in the passage which was Moses, for when the people rebelled against Moses they rebelled against Yahweh, because Moses was his human representative.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Paul did not apply YHWH from the OT unto the Lord Jesus in the NT to only mean "our devotion to Yahweh only comes through his one and only mediator the Lord Jesus Christ."

Your example of Moses failed because Moses is not the proper receipient of worship. The Lord Jesus is the proper recipeint of worship which proves He is God.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
1 Corinthians 8:6
yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him (NASB)

Although sometimes referred to in order to demonstrate the Lord Jesus is not God, 1 Corinthians 8:6 does in fact teach the Lord Jesus is God (YHWH).

Immediately after Paul affirmed the "one Lord" in 1 Corinthians 8:6, the Greek word for 'consience' (syneidesis) is used several times in 1 Corinthians 8. Thus, Paul's use of both 'Lord' and 'conscience' is linked. This is very important because Paul returns to associating the 'Lord' with 'conscience' in 1 Corinthians 10.
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:12 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:25 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:27 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:28 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:29 'conscience' (syneidesis)
The 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 8:6 is therefore the same 'Lord' (in reference to Jesus) in 1 Corinthians 10:21, 22, 26 where 'conscience' is employed in the same context several times. In fact, Paul specifically affirms wounding another believer's conscience involves sinning "against Christ" (1 Corinthians 8:12). Furthermore, the expression "things sacrificed to idols" (or something very similar; cf. Greek: eidōlothytos) in 1 Corinthians 8 is also used in 1 Corinthians 10 in connection with the 'Lord'.
1 Corinthians 8:1 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:4 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'sacrificed to an idol' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:19 'a thing sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:28 'sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)

Paul's usage of the "Lord" in 1 Corinthians 10:22 is drawn from Old Testament passages in reference to the worship of the Lord (YHWH) in contradistinction to the worship rendered unto idols ("provoke the Lord to jealousy").
Exodus 34:14-15 - YHWH's name is 'Jealous'/the eating of idolatrous sacrifice is involved.
Deuteronomy 4:24-25 - jealous/provoke
Deuteronomy 6:15 - this theme of jealousy is in relation to the one Lord (YHWH) of Deuteronomy 6:4.
1 Kings 14:22-23 - provoked/jealousy
Psalm 78:58 - provoked/jealousy

Instead of worshiping idols, the believer is to worship Jesus as being the 'Lord' (YHWH).
By the way, when you try to say that the one God is the one Lord, then you are saying that the Father and Jesus Christ are the same, for like I said, Paul didn't say "for unto us there is only one Lord God, the Father from whom are all things and Jesus Christ through whom are all things but he attached the title of Father to the one God and the name and title of Jesus Christ to the one Lord.


Therefore the Lord is not the God and can't be because he said one Lord Jesus Christ and which makes Jesus Christ the only human Lord and the Father also the only God period.
 
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Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Paul did not apply YHWH from the OT unto the Lord Jesus in the NT to only mean "our devotion to Yahweh only comes through his one and only mediator the Lord Jesus Christ."

Your example of Moses failed because Moses is not the proper receipient of worship. The Lord Jesus is the proper recipeint of worship which proves He is God.
Where do you see Paul explicitly calling Jesus Christ the Lord Yahweh in these texts dude?

Where do you see that Jesus is being worshiped as Yahweh God in these passages, show where?
 

Fred

Well-known member
By the way, when you try to say that the one God is the one Lord, then you are saying that the Father and Jesus Christ are the same,
By the way, you are still confused about who the Lord Jesus is in that YHWH from the Old Testament is aplied unto Him in passages about worship.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Where do you see Paul explicitly calling Jesus Christ the Lord Yahweh in these texts dude?

Where do you see that Jesus is being worshiped as Yahweh God in these passages, show where?
See the OP.
1 Corinthians 10:26 is from Psalm 24:1.
 
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Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
By the way, you are still confused about who the Lord Jesus is in that YHWH from the Old Testament is aplied unto Him in passages about worship.
Where, give me the verses where it actually says that Jesus is being worshiped as Yahweh in any of those passages?


By the way both David and Joseph were worshiped and the scriptures use the same exact Hebrew word for their being worshiped as it uses for God being worshiped, and therefore you can't say that just because Jesus was worshiped in the NT, that it means he was worshiped as being Yahweh God, for even the Magi from the east came to worship him as king when he was born.
 

Fred

Well-known member
See the OP.

David and Joseph were not worship. They were given respect, but they were not worshiped.

Since the Lord Jesus is worshiped proves He is God.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
See the OP.
1 Corinthians 10:26 is from Psalm 24:1.
1 Corinthians 10:23 “I have the right to do anything,” you say—but not everything is beneficial. “I have the right to do anything”—but not everything is constructive.

24 No one should seek their own good, but the good of others.

25 Eat anything sold in the meat market without raising questions of conscience,

26 for, “The earth is the Lord’s, and everything in it.”

Where does Paul refer to the Lord in verse 26 as Jesus?

Get real already, for Jesus only possesses whatever he does from the Father because he being David's greatest descendant to the throne was promised this in Psalm 2 below.


Psalm 2:
7 I will proclaim the Lord’s decree:

He said to me, “You are my son;
today I have become your father.
8 Ask me,
and I will make the nations your inheritance,
the ends of the earth your possession.

9 You will break them with a rod of iron[b];
you will dash them to pieces like pottery.”
10 Therefore, you kings, be wise;
be warned, you rulers of the earth.
11 Serve the Lord with fear
and celebrate his rule with trembling.
12 Kiss his son, or he will be angry
and your way will lead to your destruction,
for his wrath can flare up in a moment.
Blessed are all who take refuge in him.
 

Fred

Well-known member
26 for, “The earth is the Lord’s, and everything in it.”

Where does Paul refer to the Lord in verse 26 as Jesus?
You get real. I already wrote to see the OP.

If you have anything to disprove what I have written then show it. So far you have supplied nothing.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
See the OP.

David and Joseph were not worship. They were given respect, but they were not worshiped.

Since the Lord Jesus is worshiped proves He is God.
The point was that the same Hebrew words for worship of God were used for them being worshiped as God's appointed leaders over his people and therefore when it says that Jesus was worshiped, it doesn't mean he was worshiped as being Yahweh God.

1 Chronicles 29:20

20 And David said to all the congregation, Now bless the Lord your God. And all the congregation blessed the Lord God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the Lord, and the king.
 

Fred

Well-known member
1 Chronicles 29:20
And David said to all the congregation, Now bless the LORD your God. And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and their king. (KJV)
You are confused about 1 Chronicles 29:20 because when a similar construction is used elsewhere in Chronicles it doesn't refer to worshiping others besides God.

2 Chronicles 31:8
When Hezekiah and the rulers came and saw the heaps, they blessed the LORD and His people Israel. (NASB)
Blessing the Lord means offering Him worship, but that doesn't mean Hezekiah and the rulers rendered worship unto the people of Israel.

2 Chronicles 35:3
He also said to the Levites who taught all Israel and who were holy to the LORD, Put the holy ark in the house which Solomon the son of David king of Israel built; it will be a burden on your shoulders no longer. Now serve the LORD your God and His people Israel. (NASB)
Josiah (cf. 2 Chronicles 35:1) did not mean that the service (worship) that ought to be given unto God was also to be done unto the people of Israel.

In all three passages (1 Chronicles 29:20; 2 Chronicles 31:8, and 2 Chronicles 35:3) worship is only offered unto God. The others would receive the benefits of this worship.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
You get real. I already wrote to see the OP.

If you have anything to disprove what I have written then show it. So far you have supplied nothing.
I already did, for starting right out of the gate, Paul attaches the title of Father to the one God and then also attaches the name and title of Jesus Christ as being the one Lord.

Now then, unless you want to say that the Father is also Jesus Christ the one Lord and Jesus Christ the one Lord is also the Father as the one God, then the titles of Lord and God do not refer to one single being of God, for as I said, Jesus is being referred to as a lesser Lord than God is by default.

For there is one Almighty Divine Lord and God the Father and then there is one human Lord Jesus Christ and for us there is one God the Father and one human Lord just under the Father Jesus Christ and that is what Paul is saying and not that both are the same Lord God.

Furthermore, I showed you right from the scriptures in Psalm 2 where Jesus was given the uttermost parts of the earth from the Father who owns it by default as being the only True God and nowhere in what Paul says, can it even be hinted upon that he is saying that Jesus is Yahweh God.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Now then, unless you want to say that the Father is also Jesus Christ the one Lord
The above reveals your folly. You assume God must only refer to the Father. By applying OT passages about YHWH to the Lord Jesus in relation to worship Paul proves your assumption wrong.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
1 Chronicles 29:20
And David said to all the congregation, Now bless the LORD your God. And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and their king. (KJV)
You are confused about 1 Chronicles 29:20 because when a similar construction is used elsewhere in Chronicles it doesn't refer to worshiping others besides God.

2 Chronicles 31:8
When Hezekiah and the rulers came and saw the heaps, they blessed the LORD and His people Israel. (NASB)
Blessing the Lord means offering Him worship, but that doesn't mean Hezekiah and the rulers rendered worship unto the people of Israel.

2 Chronicles 35:3
He also said to the Levites who taught all Israel and who were holy to the LORD, Put the holy ark in the house which Solomon the son of David king of Israel built; it will be a burden on your shoulders no longer. Now serve the LORD your God and His people Israel. (NASB)
Josiah (cf. 2 Chronicles 35:1) did not mean that the service (worship) that ought to be given unto God was also to be done unto the people of Israel.

In all three passages (1 Chronicles 29:20; 2 Chronicles 31:8, and 2 Chronicles 35:3) worship is only offered unto God. The others would receive the benefits of this worship.
How ignorant, for we can worship and bless men who God gives us to rule over us also but not as being God, for only when they are being worshiped as God, is it idolatry.

Tell me dude, when the people served Moses, were they not by doing so, serving The God who put Moses in charge of them?


As I said, you can call it respect or whatever you want to, but both Joseph and David were respected or worshiped and the same Hebrew words were used to express this fact and therefore it doesn't mean that they were worshiped as God and I never said they were and neither does the Bible but they were worshiped as Kings and leaders.

God even gave Joseph a dream that his brothers would bow down to him and it is the fulfillment of this that I was speaking of where the same Hebrew word for worship of God is used for Joseph and I am not saying he was worshiped as God but only that the same word is used.


Nevertheless, you have shown no proof whatsoever that Paul is referring to Jesus as Yahweh or as being worshiped as Yahweh in the 1 Corinthians 10.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
The above reveals your folly. You assume God must only refer to the Father. By applying OT passages about YHWH to the Lord Jesus in relation to worship Paul proves your assumption wrong.
It does when Paul calls the Father the one God of us and then calls Jesus Christ the one Lord of us, for he did the same thing that Jesus did in John 17:3 This is eternal life, that they might know you (Father) The Only True God and Jesus the Christ whom you have sent".


Unless you want to be willingly ignorant of what he very clearly stated?


Paul isn't proving anything I am saying as wrong but rather it is you that his words are contrary to and not mine.
 
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