The "one Lord" in reference to Jesus being YHWH (1 Corinthians 8:6)

ROFLOL, just like a trinity, to agree with anything spoken by another trinitarian and no matter how mixed up it is.


I will tell you this, that there are many trins posting on this forum who don't know their Bible for beans to even be on this forum posting what they do, that if I was still a trinitarian myself, I would want them to find something else to do with their time, for they do more harm to what they believe in then they do to benefit it any and that is a fact.

For instance there is one on this forum that thinks that there is a difference between saying that Jesus was given life or granted to have life in John 5:26 and he would seem to argue this to the death also and which is quite ridiculous and especially when Jesus made what he meant even more clear in John 6:57 when he said he Lives because of the Father.


Would the Father ever say that he lives because of Jesus?


Would the Father ever say that "all power in heaven and earth has been given unto him" and if so, by whom would it have been given from?

These passages very clearly reveal how foolish your doctrines are, for if Jesus ever was God, he couldn't never be anything less than God, for Psalm 102:25-28 tells us that God never changes from what he has always originally been.
You still ignored the c0ntext of 1 Corinthians 10. It's great how you ramble on and on about your false doctrine which is refuted so easily with just one sentence.
 
1 Corinthians 8:6
yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him (NASB)

Although sometimes referred to in order to demonstrate the Lord Jesus is not God, 1 Corinthians 8:6 does in fact teach the Lord Jesus is God (YHWH).

Immediately after Paul affirmed the "one Lord" in 1 Corinthians 8:6, the Greek word for 'consience' (syneidesis) is used several times in 1 Corinthians 8. Thus, Paul's use of both 'Lord' and 'conscience' is linked. This is very important because Paul returns to associating the 'Lord' with 'conscience' in 1 Corinthians 10.
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 8:12 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:25 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:27 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:28 'conscience' (syneidesis)
1 Corinthians 10:29 'conscience' (syneidesis)
The 'Lord' in 1 Corinthians 8:6 is therefore the same 'Lord' (in reference to Jesus) in 1 Corinthians 10:21, 22, 26 where 'conscience' is employed in the same context several times. In fact, Paul specifically affirms wounding another believer's conscience involves sinning "against Christ" (1 Corinthians 8:12). Furthermore, the expression "things sacrificed to idols" (or something very similar; cf. Greek: eidōlothytos) in 1 Corinthians 8 is also used in 1 Corinthians 10 in connection with the 'Lord'.
1 Corinthians 8:1 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:4 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:6 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 8:7 'sacrificed to an idol' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 8:10 'things sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:19 'a thing sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)
1 Corinthians 10:21 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:22 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:26 'Lord'
1 Corinthians 10:28 'sacrificed to idols' (eidōlothytos)

Paul's usage of the "Lord" in 1 Corinthians 10:22 is drawn from Old Testament passages in reference to the worship of the Lord (YHWH) in contradistinction to the worship rendered unto idols ("provoke the Lord to jealousy").
Exodus 34:14-15 - YHWH's name is 'Jealous'/the eating of idolatrous sacrifice is involved.
Deuteronomy 4:24-25 - jealous/provoke
Deuteronomy 6:15 - this theme of jealousy is in relation to the one Lord (YHWH) of Deuteronomy 6:4.
1 Kings 14:22-23 - provoked/jealousy
Psalm 78:58 - provoked/jealousy

Instead of worshiping idols, the believer is to worship Jesus as being the 'Lord' (YHWH).
Yahweh is a personal name not just another title and there’s only one Yahweh.

In the OT it’s clear that the Messiah would be the son and servant of Yahweh (Psalm 2:7, Ezek. 34:23-24, Is. 42:1).

If you think Paul is now telling us that Jesus is Yahweh then either you believe there are two Yahwehs or Jesus is his own son/servant.
 
Yahweh is Jesus’ God so either he is his own God or there are multiple Yahwehs.

That is your confusion. Jesus doesn't have to fit in the parameters you impose. Since He is the "Lord" in 1 Cor. 10:21, 22 and 26 demonstrates He is to be worshiped as being YHWH.
The context teaches this in that worship should not go to any idol, but to the Lord (Jesus).
 
That is your confusion. Jesus doesn't have to fit in the paremeters you impose. Since He is the "Lord" in 1 Cor. 10:21, 22 and 26 demonstrates He is to be worshiped as being YHWH.
The context teaches this in that worship should not go to any idol, but to the Lord (Jesus).
How many Yahwehs are there?
 
YHWH in this text applies to the Father.
John 20:17 “‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”

So the Father who is Yahweh is the God of Jesus. Do you agree Yahweh is Jesus’ God?
 
Yes, and Jesus is also YHWH because Thomas properly referred to Him as "my God" in John 20:28.
 
Incorrect, beause Thomas knew there is only one YHWH and he still referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God."

You should know that whenever a believer uses the expresson "my God" in the Bible it always refers to the Almighty.
 
The Son is YHWH, but in that passage it is the Father who is referred to as YHWH.
But you believe the Son is another Yahweh and therefore one Yahweh is speaking to another and what is worse, is the fact that the one Yahweh who is speaking to the other Yahweh, owns the earth and everything in it while the other one doesn't, for that is what the passage very clearly reveals.

"Ask of me and I will give you the heathen for your inheritance and the uttermost parts of the earth for your possession".

How can Jesus be Yahweh and ever ceased to have always owned all of these things anyhow?
 
Incorrect, beause Thomas knew there is only one YHWH and he still referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God."
You keep contradicting yourself. You say there’s only one Yahweh and since the God of a Jesus is Yahweh then Jesus must be his own God if not then you have more than one Yahweh
You should know that whenever a believer uses the expresson "my God" in the Bible it always refers to the Almighty.
 
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