The "one Lord" in reference to Jesus being YHWH (1 Corinthians 8:6)

Fred

Well-known member
You keep contradicting yourself. You say there’s only one Yahweh and since the God of a Jesus is Yahweh then Jesus must be his own God if not then you have more than one Yahweh
You keep dodging the use of "my God" in John 20:28.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Incorrect, beause Thomas knew there is only one YHWH and he still referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God."

You should know that whenever a believer uses the expresson "my God" in the Bible it always refers to the Almighty.
What do you do with Philippians 2:9-11 also?


"For this cause (because of his obedience unto death) God (Yahweh) has highly exalted him (Jesus) and given unto him a name above every other, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow and every tongue confess that Jesus is Lord to the glory of God the Father".


How can what Paul is saying make the slightest bit of cogent sense if Jesus always had the name Yahweh God and never ceased to have it?

For Paul is obviously talking about what will happen at the end of this age and if Jesus was always Yahweh God, he would have always had the name above every other and the name also unto which all knees will eventually bow and confess to as well?????
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Incorrect. There is only one YHWH. And He alone is the proper recipient of worship. Jesus is properly worshiped. Therefore, Jesus is YHWH.
Not if the Father is one Yahweh speaking to another in Psalm 2:7!

Sorry but you have yet to prove that the Greek word for worship of God in the case of Jesus is being used for Jesus being worshiped as God also and especially when on the night of his birth the Magi came from the East not to worship God but the King that was born.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Not if the Father is one Yahweh speaking to another in Psalm 2:7!
That doesn't prove your case at all.

Worship is due unto God alone.
In Matthew 4:10 (cf. Luke 4:8) both proskyneō and latreuō are used in association with one another in that only God is to be the only recipient of each. As seen in other passages throughout the New Testament one cannot diminish or separate what proskyneō means without also doing so concerning latreuō found within the same context.
a. Serving (latreuō) the host of heaven corresponds with worshiping (latreuō) idols (Acts 7:42, 43)
b. Paul went to Jerusalem to worship (proskyneō) corresponds with him serving (latreuō) God (Acts 24:11, 14).
c. Those in white robes worshiping (proskyneō) God corresponds with them serving (latreuō) God (Revelation 7:11, 15).
 

Fred

Well-known member
Thomas is seeing the Father in Jesus just like Jesus said in John 14:10.

The Father is in all believers (2 Corinthians 6:16), but believers are not to refer to one another as "my God" - nor do they do so in the Bible.

So your argument does not work.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
That doesn't prove your case at all.

Worship is due unto God alone.
In Matthew 4:10 (cf. Luke 4:8) both proskyneō and latreuō are used in association with one another in that only God is to be the only recipient of each. As seen in other passages throughout the New Testament one cannot diminish or separate what proskyneō means without also doing so concerning latreuō found within the same context.
a. Serving (latreuō) the host of heaven corresponds with worshiping (latreuō) idols (Acts 7:42, 43)
b. Paul went to Jerusalem to worship (proskyneō) corresponds with him serving (latreuō) God (Acts 24:11, 14).
c. Those in white robes worshiping (proskyneō) God corresponds with them serving (latreuō) God (Revelation 7:11, 15).
That is baloney and very clearly Paul in Romans 13 reveals that our obedience to the rulers over us is obedience unto God himself being God ordained them.

Sorry but the Greek word "proskyneō" is used for the word "worship" in Matthew 2:2 and they came to worship the one who was born King of the Jews and not the one who was born as Almighty God.

Therefore what you are doing with this is stretching it way beyond what it was intended to mean.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Sorry but the Greek word "proskyneō" is used for the word "worship" in Matthew 2:2 and they came to worship the one who was born King of the Jews and not the one who was born as Almighty God.

You should be sorry. I supplied evidence that backs up my claim. You couldn't refute it.

Try again.

Here it is again:
In Matthew 4:10 (cf. Luke 4:8) both proskyneō and latreuō are used in association with one another in that only God is to be the only recipient of each. As seen in other passages throughout the New Testament one cannot diminish or separate what proskyneō means without also doing so concerning latreuō found within the same context.
a. Serving (latreuō) the host of heaven corresponds with worshiping (latreuō) idols (Acts 7:42, 43)
b. Paul went to Jerusalem to worship (proskyneō) corresponds with him serving (latreuō) God (Acts 24:11, 14).
c. Those in white robes worshiping (proskyneō) God corresponds with them serving (latreuō) God (Revelation 7:11, 15).
 

JNelson

Well-known member
The Father is in all believers (2 Corinthians 6:16), but believers are not to refer to one another as "my God" - nor do they do so in the Bible.

So your argument does not work.
Yes but he isn’t working through us as he did with Jesus and that’s why we can’t say “If you’ve seen me you’ve seen the Father”.

Jesus also says “The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his work”

Yahweh says “I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him”

This is what makes him different from all other believers.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Yes but he isn’t working through us as he did with Jesus and that’s why we can’t say “If you’ve seen me you’ve seen the Father”.
Thus proving "my God" refers to the Almighty because this is what it always means by believers when used in the Bible.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
No need to finagle around your confusion. Prove your case concerning this passage.
Sorry but Paul very clearly reveals in Philippians 2:9-11 that Jesus is given a name above all others and a name that he has obviously never had before this and that refutes your delusion also concerning Philippians 2:6 and what the words "form "morphe" of God" are really meaning as well.

For if Paul wanted us to know that Jesus existed as the eternal God and then also became a man, he would have said it just that plainly but he didn't.

He would have said it something like this "who existing as the eternal God, did not consider his being God something to hold on so tightly unto but instead he emptied himself to become a human being and by this he also became a servant".

No need for the words "morphe" or "huparchon" or "isa" or "homoioma" or "scema" and which would only totally confuse what he wanted to say if indeed he really wanted to say that Jesus was God who became a man and which he obviously didn't, or he wouldn't have used these words at all.
 

Fred

Well-known member
In Philippians 2:10 the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of worship. This proves He is God.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
You should be sorry. I supplied evidence that backs up my claim. You couldn't refute it.

Try again.

Here it is again:
In Matthew 4:10 (cf. Luke 4:8) both proskyneō and latreuō are used in association with one another in that only God is to be the only recipient of each. As seen in other passages throughout the New Testament one cannot diminish or separate what proskyneō means without also doing so concerning latreuō found within the same context.
a. Serving (latreuō) the host of heaven corresponds with worshiping (latreuō) idols (Acts 7:42, 43)
b. Paul went to Jerusalem to worship (proskyneō) corresponds with him serving (latreuō) God (Acts 24:11, 14).
c. Those in white robes worshiping (proskyneō) God corresponds with them serving (latreuō) God (Revelation 7:11, 15).
Only in your little dream land and fantasia that you exist in, does the above refute the facts that I gave you and again, the Magi came to worship Jesus not as God but as the one born King of the Jews and just like the passage very clearly reveals also.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Only in your little dream land and fantasia that you exist in, does the above refute the facts that I gave you and again, the Magi came to worship Jesus not as God but as the one born King of the Jews and just like the passage very clearly reveals also.
Yes! You totally dodged the evidence I supplied.
 

JNelson

Well-known member
Thus proving "my God" refers to the Almighty because this is what it always means by believers when used in the Bible.
You ignored the rest of what I wrote. My God refers to the Father in Jesus just as Jesus said in John 14.
 
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