The "one Lord" in reference to Jesus being YHWH (1 Corinthians 8:6)

JNelson

Well-known member
You ignore what I wrote. Here it is again:
a. Only God is the proper recipient of prayer.
b. The Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer.
c. Therefore, the Lord Jesus is God.

Furthermore, your assertion is wrong because the Son of God (John 20:31) is "my God" (John 20:28).
You ignore what I wrote so why do you expect me to not ignore your drivel?
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
Yes! What an awful refutation. There wasn't anything of substance!

Keep up the terrible work!
I am through with arguing with you, for I knew when I started that you were brainwashed beyond any ability to return from it and the only reason why I even bothered with it at all was to prepare a platform for God to remind you of how you were confronted with the truth and you still rejected it.

For that is the other side of why it is important to preach and teach the truth, for many are called but only few are chosen.
 

JNelson

Well-known member
I addressed it my last sentence in my previous post to you.

Get a clue.
I was referring to the previous post which you admitted you ignored. You say you believe in one God yet you keep arguing for multiple.

John 20:17 “I ascend to my Father and your Father, and my God and your God.”

Is Jesus the God mentioned here?
 
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johnny guitar

Well-known member
Neither is Jesus being referred to as Yahweh in the OT or NT either but also no other believers are ever called "the one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" either.

Neither is there any other believe that it is specifically said of as the "foreknown" before the foundation of the world and as per 1 Peter 1:20.

Neither is does it state about any other believer "that all of the fullness of God dwells within them" either.

Therefore only through Jesus does one call upon the name of Yahweh!


By the way, don't you know the difference between calling on the name Yahweh and confessing the name Jesus Christ as kurios?

For you seem to be willingly ignorant and therefore confusing Romans 10:9-10 to say "that if you should call upon the name of Yahweh and believe in your heart that Yahweh has raised Yahweh from the dead, you shall be saved".

Also and once again Jesus said this below.


John 17:3 "This is eternal life, that they might know you (he was praying to Yahweh his Father) The Only True God and Jesus the Christ whom you have sent".


Also, your little ignorant attempt to get around this will never hold up at the end of the age, for God gave Jesus all of his words and Jesus said this more than once also and God is not so simple that he would have Jesus say something like this if it wasn't exactly what he meant him to say and especially not when our eternal life depends upon it.


This means that "The Father is The Only True God and Jesus is the Christ whom he sent" period and with nothing more to be added or removed from what Jesus stated either!

Nope, but instead, all call upon the name of Yahweh through confessing Jesus Christ as kurios and believing in their hearts that Yahweh raised him from the dead and just like Paul said in Romans 10:8-10 and this fulfills the prophecy of Joel that Paul mentions right after this in Romans 10:13.

For it is only through the Son that one calls upon the name of the Father Yahweh.
We call upon the name of The ONE Lord, Jesus Christ and NO other name.
And Christ was FOREORDAINED from the foundation of the world.
There is NO passage in the NT wherein anyone calls on the name of Yahweh.
 

Fred

Well-known member
We call upon the name of The ONE Lord, Jesus Christ

Which demonstrates the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer.

And since only God is to be prayed to.................proves the Lord Jesus is God.
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
In terms of your heresy....good riddance to bad garbage.
Being you came back for more here is more.

For what cause does Paul say in Philippians 2:5-11 that Jesus was highly exalted and given that name above all others?

Read it again, for it wasn't because he was God but rather because he was obedient unto God right up until his death on the cross.

Also, nowhere does Paul really even tell us that he is worshiped but only that he is bowed to and and confessed to be Kurios by all creation and unto the glory of God the Father Yahweh also.

Again, Paul is revealing that Jesus is given a reward for his obedience of something that he obviously never had before this and if he was Yahweh and always existed as Yahweh, even while becoming a man like you trins falsely believe, then he would have always had a name above all others and at the end of the age all men would have been made to confess him as Yahweh also.

This passage therefore buries you and whether you are wise enough to see that or not, it nevertheless destroys your false doctrine about it.

So your belief about this makes Paul's word in verses 9-11 quite meaningless and pointless to say the least and you better get a hold of that fact also, for Jesus himself in John 17:3 made it quite clear that The Father is The Only True God and himself is the Christ who he sent and he based whether or not we will have eternal life on his words about it also.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Jesus himself in John 17:3 made it quite clear that The Father is The Only True God
Questions:
1. Is Jesus the Only Master (despotēs) of every Christian (Jude 4)?
2. Why does the same Greek word for "only" appear in Revelation 15:4 in that God alone is holy but the same Greek word for "holy" is applied unto people (Titus 1:8)?
3. Why is it that whenever the "true God" is used in the Bible it is always used in contradistinction with idols (2 Chronicles 15:3; Jeremiah 10:10, 11; John 17:3; Thessalonians 1:9 and 1 John 5:20, 21)?
 
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Fred

Well-known member
I was referring to the previous post which you admitted you ignored. You say you believe in one God yet you keep arguing for multiple.

John 20:17 “I ascend to my Father and your Father, and my God and your God.”

Is Jesus the God mentioned here?

The Father is God (John 20:17) and Thomas referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God" (John 20:28).
 

Yahweh will increase

Well-known member
The Father is God (John 20:17) and Thomas referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God" (John 20:28).
Do you have any other references from any other disciples every addressing Jesus to his face as being their God other than that you believe Thomas was doing this?

Jesus was with his disciples for about 3 1/2 years, so where did any other the others every call him their God?


Thomas wasn't calling him his God either but instead, Thomas realized that God was in Christ or Christ wouldn't have been raised from the dead and therefore when he saw him, he his faith was renewed in his Lord Jesus and his God Yahweh the Father and he expressed it.


Out of the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established and not only one who you believe was calling Jesus God.

Like I said and will again, Jesus was with his disciples for 3 1/2 years before he died and was resurrected and ascended into heaven and nowhere will you find one instance in the scripture where any of them every called Jesus their God period.

Furthermore, the issue of Thomas's unbelief was not that Jesus was God but rather that Jesus was truly the Christ having died and that God could have raised him from the dead.

For at this point he doubted that Jesus having died could have been the Christ that was promised to come and that God could have raised him from the dead and therefore when he saw Jesus, his faith was renewed that Jesus was indeed that Lord that was promised from David's descendants and that his God had indeed raised him from the dead and therefore he expressed his renewed faith verbally.
 

Fred

Well-known member
Do you have any other references from any other disciples every addressing Jesus to his face as being their God other than that you believe Thomas was doing this?
God only has to teach somethng one time for it to be true.

You dodged this:
Questions:
1. Is Jesus the Only Master (despotēs) of every Christian (Jude 4)?
2. Why does the same Greek word for "only" appear in Revelation 15:4 in that God alone is holy but the same Greek word for "holy" is applied unto people (Titus 1:8)?
3. Why is it that whenever the "true God" is used in the Bible it is always used in contradistinction with idols (2 Chronicles 15:3; Jeremiah 10:10, 11; John 17:3; Thessalonians 1:9 and 1 John 5:20, 21)?
 
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