The "one Lord" in reference to Jesus being YHWH (1 Corinthians 8:6)

You can do so, but it won't be based on ignorance. You simply refuse to believe that Bible teaches only God is the proper receipient of worship.
Yes, he is the only one who is to be worshiped as the Almighty God and which make what you are giving to Jesus, idolatrous worship, for Jesus is not the Almighty God and you wont find one single passage in the scripture that calls him Yahweh either.


By the way, God himself called his own servants by his title of "elohim" "god" and he did this in Exodus 21:6, 22:8-9, Psalm 45:6-7 and also in Psalm 82 and which Jesus even quoted back to the Jews when they falsely accused him of making himself equal with God only because he called God his Father in John 10.

However God never called any of his servants including Jesus by his name Yahweh God.
 
Lord in the sense of being YHWH.
ROFLOL, no, for if that was the case then the Father would be excluded from being Yahweh God, for Paul used the word "one", "for us there is but one Lord Jesus Christ" and the same goes for the Father as the one God period and just like Jesus says in John 17:3 also.
 
Yes, he is the only one who is to be worshiped as the Almighty God and which make what you are giving to Jesus, idolatrous worship, for Jesus is not the Almighty God and you wont find one single passage in the scripture that calls him Yahweh either.


By the way, God himself called his own servants by his title of "elohim" "god" and he did this in Exodus 21:6, 22:8-9, Psalm 45:6-7 and also in Psalm 82 and which Jesus even quoted back to the Jews when they falsely accused him of making himself equal with God only because he called God his Father in John 10.

However God never called any of his servants including Jesus by his name Yahweh God.

Worship is only due to God. So when Jesus is worshiped He is worshiped as Almighty God.
Others can be called "G/god" but only the Almighty is referred to as "my God" in the Bible by believers. This is why Thomas did so unto the Lord Jesus in John 20:28.
 
You haven't proved that is worship.
I wasn't trying to prove it was worship to God dude but only that the same Hebrew word is used and which proves that in the NT when the same Greek word for worship of God is used for Jesus, it doesn't mean that Jesus is being worshiped as God but rather as the King that God sent him to be over his people instead.
 
Again, a false assumption on your part.
Hey the religiously deceived will believe what they will believe but only the true sheep will hear the words of Christ given to them from the scriptures as discerned by the Holy Spirit that was sent to speak the words of God that he gave unto Jesus for us to know.
 
I wasn't trying to prove it was worship to God
I never claimed you did. But you fail to understand that worship is due unto God alone.

You also falsely assume that the same word used in the LXX means the same thing in the NT.

New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (NIDNTT): As used in the New Testament proskyneo "denoted exclusively worship addressed (or which should be addressed) to God or to Jesus Christ" (2:877, Prayer, H. Schonweiss, C. Brown).
 
Hey the religiously deceived will believe what they will believe but only the true sheep will hear the words of Christ given to them from the scriptures as discerned by the Holy Spirit that was sent to speak the words of God that he gave unto Jesus for us to know.

Your example of Moses was a disaster. He was never referred to as YHWH and he was never worshiped.
 
Again, a false assumption on your part.
I live in Sarasota Florida, so if I was to say, for unto us Floridians there is but one Governor Ron DeSantis and one congressman, Vern Buchanan, can Vern Buchanan also be the Governor of Florida and can Ron DeSantis also be the congressman for Sarasota?

You see then, the assumption is what you are doing and you are also being willingly ignorant in it as well because Paul make a clear distinction between the one God and the one Lord in the passage.
 
Your example of Moses was a disaster. He was never referred to as YHWH and he was never worshiped.
Neither was Jesus by Paul and that was the point and not that Moses what referred as Yahweh and which I never said.

You know that however but you are getting desperate because I am revealing the errors in your doctrine and you don't like it and therefore like most trins on this forum, you will then twist what I am saying to try and save face for yourself.
 
I live in Sarasota Florida, so if I was to say, for unto us Floridians there is but one Governor Ron DeSantis and one congressman, Vern Buchanan, can Vern Buchanan also be the Governor of Florida and can Ron DeSantis also be the congressman for Sarasota?

You see then, the assumption is what you are doing and you are also being willingly ignorant in it as well because Paul make a clear distinction between the one God and the one Lord in the passage.
I go by what the Bible teaches an not some example from creation. My God is bigger than that.
 
Neither was Jesus by Paul
Incorrect. The context from 1 Corinthians 8 is the same as 1 Corinthians 10 as I pointed out in the OP. Furthermore, the same "Lord' in reference to Jesus is being referred to. This was also stated with more detail in the OP. But you come bumbling along without any evidence and affirm it isn't so. Myths die hard.
 
I never claimed you did. But you fail to understand that worship is due unto God alone.

You also falsely assume that the same word used in the LXX means the same thing in the NT.

New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (NIDNTT): As used in the New Testament proskyneo "denoted exclusively worship addressed (or which should be addressed) to God or to Jesus Christ" (2:877, Prayer, H. Schonweiss, C. Brown).
Quite playing ignorant dude, for you know what I am saying by all of this, for let's not call it worship at all, but the same exact words used for worship or God are used of Homage to a King and that was my point and therefore you cannot prove that Jesus is God because the same word for worship of God is used for him as Homage and respect to a King.


Therefore I don't have a problem with it dude, for I know what the word means in context to whoever it is being applied to.
 
Incorrect. The context from 1 Corinthians 8 is the same as 1 Corinthians 10 as I pointed out in the OP. Furthermore, the same "Lord' in reference to Jesus is being referred to. This was also stated with more detail in the OP. But you come bumbling along without any evidence and affirm it isn't so. Myths die hard.
Your a bias religious dreamer and the only thing you pointed out was what you are reading into the passages because you want them to fit with your religious bias and false doctrines about them.
 
Big deal the same word is used. God says He will honor those who honor Him (1 Samuel 2:30). Honoring God necessitates worshiping God, but that doesn't mean God will worship people.
Get a clue.
 
Your a bias religious dreamer and the only thing you pointed out was what you are reading into the passages because you want them to fit with your religious bias and false doctrines about them.

Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (TDNT): His omnipotence, in which Christ shares as kurios (1 C. 8:6; Col. 1:16; Mt. 28:18), extends over the whole world, over heaven and earth (1:679, gē, Sasse).

The Jesus of the Bible is omnipotent. To be omnipotent means to be God.
 
Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (TDNT): His omnipotence, in which Christ shares as kurios (1 C. 8:6; Col. 1:16; Mt. 28:18), extends over the whole world, over heaven and earth (1:679, gē, Sasse).

The Jesus of the Bible is omnipotent. To be omnipotent means to be God.
Read your Bible again, God made Jesus his human heir and he even told you that after his resurrection when he said, "all power in heaven and earth has been given unto me".

Let me ask you, do you have a passage where God ever made such a statement?


You don't and that is because God owns it all by default but Jesus only owns it because God made him his human heir of it all.
 
Big deal the same word is used. God says He will honor those who honor Him (1 Samuel 2:30). Honoring God necessitates worshiping God, but that doesn't mean God will worship people.
Get a clue.
Who said anything about God worshiping people, quit running your little diversionary rabbit trails, and by the way, one can honor God by honoring the King or ruler who God has put over him and Paul very clearly reveals this in Romans 13. read it!
 
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