The "one Lord" in reference to Jesus being YHWH (1 Corinthians 8:6)

The Father is the God mentioned in John 20:17 while Jesus is the God mentioned in John 20:28.

So according to your Trinitarian view...

The God mentioned in John 20:17 IS NOT the God mentioned in John 20:28.

John 20:16-17... Jesus saith unto her, Mary. She turned herself, and saith unto him, Rabboni; which is to say, Master. Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

John 20:28... And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

Which means (according to your Trinitarian view)...

Mary’s God is not Thomas’ God.

Correct?
 
So when Jesus says “my God” he must also be including himself since the one God can never exclude him right?

He knew He is God the Son and He spoke to God the Father. When Thomas said "my God" to Jesus he (Thomas) knew he could say the same thing to the Father as well.
 
Both are the one God.

So we would BOTH say...

Both the God mentioned in John 20:17 and the God mentioned in John 20:28 are the one God.

The difference in our views is I would say that means...

The God mentioned in John 20:17 IS the God mentioned in John 20:28.

Whereas YOU would say...

The God mentioned in John 20:17 is NOT the God mentioned in John 20:28.

Correct?
 
He knew He is God the Son and He spoke to God the Father. When Thomas said "my God" to Jesus he (Thomas) knew he could say the same thing to the Father as well.
You’re not answering the question so let me rephrase it. When Jesus said “my God” does he exclude himself from the one God here in John 20:17 or not?
 
You’re not answering the question so let me rephrase it. When Jesus said “my God” does he exclude himself from the one God here in John 20:17 or not?
Jesus was referrimng to the Father, but He (Jesus) knew that "my God" refers to Himself (Jhn 20:28).

Thomas properly referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God." Do you?
 
Jesus was referrimng to the Father,
So if he was not referring to himself then Jesus is not the one God referred to in John 20:17 which means there are two Gods in the same chapter.
but He (Jesus) knew that "my God" refers to Himself (Jhn 20:28).
Same idea here, does my God refer only to Jesus or to the trinity?
Thomas properly referred to the Lord Jesus as "my God." Do you?
Thomas properly referred to Jesus as my Lord and to the Father as my God as he finally sees the father in Jesus just as he told them back in John 14:10
 
Thomas properly referred to Jesus as my Lord and to the Father as my God as he finally sees the father in Jesus just as he told them back in John 14:10
Incorrect. Thomas said unto Him (in reference to Jesus)....

BDAG (3rd Edition): Concerning John 20:28 states that theos "certainly refers to Christ" (theos, page 450).
 
Jesus was referrimng to the Father,
So if he was not referring to himself then Jesus is not the one God referred to in John 20:17 which means there are two Gods in the same chapter.
but He (Jesus) knew that "my God" refers to Himself (Jhn 20:28).
Same idea here, does my God refer only to Jesus or to the trinity?
Why do you divide the one God when convenient?
Incorrect. Thomas said unto Him (in reference to Jesus)....

BDAG (3rd Edition): Concerning John 20:28 states that theos "certainly refers to Christ" (theos, page 450).
That’s an interpretation and it’s wrong.
 
That’s an interpretation and it’s wrong.
So says your worthless opinion.

Here's more that refute your heresy.
New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (NIDNTT): Jn. 20:28 contains the unique affirmation of Thomas addressing the Risen Christ as God: "My Lord and my God [ho kyrios mou kai ho theos mou]." (2:81, God, J. Schneider).
 
So says your worthless opinion.

Here's more that refute your heresy.
New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (NIDNTT): Jn. 20:28 contains the unique affirmation of Thomas addressing the Risen Christ as God: "My Lord and my God [ho kyrios mou kai ho theos mou]." (2:81, God, J. Schneider).
And those are worthless opinions as well. Are you imply these men are infalible??
 
Is Jesus the Father?

I asked Jesus and this was his reply...

“He that hath seen me hath seen the Father.”

So those who saw the human nature of Jesus (since that is all that is visible) can be said to have seen the Father.

I believe the name “the Father” refers to YHWH in transcendence and “Jesus” refers to YHWH incarnate. So to see YHWH incarnate is to see YHWH who is transcendent.

When YOU asked Jesus to show you the Father, did he give you a different answer than he gave Philip?
 
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