The origin of the KJVO myth...

Beloved Daughter

Super Member
No you can't separate between truth and fiction. You only think you can. It is part of the deception of this age. Satan has engineered two great movements for this age that blinds the minds of the simple. They are the Charismatic movement and Calvinism. They are like leaven in a loaf. They work to swell and corrupt. So your claim that people are being enlightened is just evidence that his plan is genius.

Here is some info for you and Roby. Roby, the cult killer, a legend, who is energized by one and don't even know it.

2 Timothy 3:13
But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived.

The above is in the context of the last days of the church.

V 1 - This know also, that in the last days perilous times shall come.
5 Having a form of godliness, but denying the power thereof: from such turn away.
6 For of this sort are they which creep into houses, and lead captive silly women laden with sins, led away with divers lusts,
7 Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth.

That is what the great apostle Paul, the apostle to the gentiles said, under inspiration of God, about the last days. It was not I who said it so do not get mad at me for quoting it. We are in a feminized age.

The power that is denied is the "gospel." The gospel is the doctrine of Christ, which includes who he is and what he has done for the world.

The church of Jesus Christ had a beginning and it has an end. These passages I quoted above are about the last days leading up to the end. Here is one about the beginning.

18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
I know you declare that you believe the bible and you quoted a bunch of translations that you say you believe, but do you believe the plain words here that Jesus Christ is the beginning of the church at his resurrection? Do you believe that Jesus Christ was actually born spiritually at his resurrection like that verse says and he is the first man in history to be born such a way and that we must be born that same way? I doubt that you believe the words of that verse literally.

13 And he shewed us how he had seen an angel in his house, which stood and said unto him, Send men to Joppa, and call for Simon, whose surname is Peter; 14 Who shall tell thee words, whereby thou and all thy house shall be saved. 15 And as I began to speak, the Holy Ghost fell on them, as on us at the beginning. 16 Then remembered I the word of the Lord, how that he said, John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost. 17 Forasmuch then as God gave them the like gift as he did unto us, who believed on the Lord Jesus Christ; what was I, that I could withstand God? 18 When they heard these things, they held their peace, and glorified God, saying, Then hath God also to the Gentiles granted repentance unto life.

The Holy Ghost indwelling the body of Jesus Christ at the tomb is what quickened him and the Holy Ghost in the believing Jews at Pentecost and afterwards at the beginning of the formation of the church of Jesus Christ, and the inclusion of the gentiles who believed the gospel though the ministry of Peter 10 years later is what quickened them. The "us" in V 15 are Jews and the "them" are gentiles.

I know we are near the end of the church age when the door will be shut because the doctrines that are preached today and promoted are false doctrines. You would agree with me, I think, if you valued the "words" of scriptures.

Rom 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.

I would want to know what the fullness is and could it be that it is the time when gentiles will no longer believe the truth. This makes me wonder if I want to be in the crowd that is swelling in numbers like Mr. Roby seems to think his is doing, especially if the fullness of the gentiles is equivalent to the last days.

2 Tim 4:I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;
2 Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all long suffering and doctrine.
3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
4 And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.

I am here to exalt our wonderful savior, the Lord Jesus Christ. His word, he says, will not return void. It will save some people but God is not a big tent God. He says only a few will humble themselves and come and be saved. How simple his invitation to come and be saved! Believe his words.

Matthew 7:13-14
Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat: Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.

Matthew 22:14
For many are called, but few are chosen

Luke 18:8b
Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth?

as that the day of Christ is at hand. 3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

120 new translations at the end of the church age has not helped. It has been a hindrance to the truth and purity of the word of God.
You never get the truth. The KJV you hold so dear, was translated by Calvinists. Deal with it. These are facts you cannot run away from.

It's time to restore things that used to be.
 

Shoonra

Active member
I had thought that the KJV was worked up by committees consisting of a mix of Anglicans and Puritans, to the exclusion or omission of several denominations that became influential well after 1611.
 

robycop3

Well-known member
The God of heaven is not like the god you are preaching. He does not sanction all these new translations from the critical manuscripts at the end of the age. God is not even interested in easy understanding, a major reason given for producing all these versions.

Luke 10:21
In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father; for so it seemed good in thy sight.

1 Corinthians 1:26-29
26 For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:
27 But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty;
28 And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought things that are:
29 That no flesh should glory in his presence.

There are more divisions and more denomination, more para church ministries, more women preachers in the last one hundred years with this new light philosophy though a multitude of new translations and paraphrases than all the centuries before and Jesus wondered if there would be faith on the earth when he returns.

I reject your philosophy and do not believe God had anything to do with this practice. It would certainly be out of character for him.
How silly.
God gave His word in the everyday languages of the people He wanted to have it first. He caused them to translate it. As for changes in worship, there's no Scriptural authority for synagogues; the old Israelis were required to worship at the tabernacle, then, the temple. While the temple remained the centralJewish place of worship, every little Jewish town in Jesus' time had a synagogue. (Nazareth is 64 miles from Jerusalem.) Jesus, & later, the apostles taught in synagogues. These synagogues also had rabbis, not authorized in Scripture.

Most Jews bought animals for sacrifice, as most had left agrarian pursuits by Jesus' time. Again, that practice wasn't found in Scripture.

And God certainly did & does want His word to be understood ! remember what He had Paul write about unknown tongues, and not just those sent supernaturally. He himself was multilingual, speaking whatever language his various audiences used.

What's NOT from God is the KJVO myth. Its cultic & dishonest origin alone proves that, besides the lies it contains. But you're so in thrall to it that you can't see that.

And you can't disprove a single bit of the KJV's goofs & booboos I & others have pointed out, nor deal with the fact that its English is mostly obsolete & archaic, in a style no longer used everyday.

"The KJVO myth-phony as a Ford Corvette !"
 

robycop3

Well-known member
I had thought that the KJV was worked up by committees consisting of a mix of Anglicans and Puritans, to the exclusion or omission of several denominations that became influential well after 1611.
Its purpose was to provide one standard Bible version for all Anglican congregations, as various ones were using everything from the Geneva to Tyndale's, & everything in between. But both we & modern England have much-more-diverse populations now, so several English-language translations are now in use. Still, NOWHERE is GOD limited to just one translation in any language.
 

Shoonra

Active member
Nehemiah 8:8 indicates that part of the Divine plan was translations (apparently multiple) into contemporary and clear language.
 

robycop3

Well-known member
God has not turned over his words to 120 translation committees to choose their own words and then write in them that they are the words of God. They are not. They are the words of the translators. There is no bible for your claims. You are sitting in the seat of the critic with no bible to back you up. It is your opinion. All that stuff you have written is opinion pieces. If you could quote something to confirm your doctrine you would. You cannot.
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My, MY, you're getting both desperate & silly. The KJV is the words of ITS translators, with most editions now in use modified in 1769 by Blayney, & since modified further by the Universities of Oxford & Cambridge, & other printers, & they omit mosta the extratextual material included in the AV 1611 by its makers.

And I have every valid English Bible translation to back up my claims, including your KJV. Its English was modern when it was made.
Now, if you take the position that the scriptures are only a narrative and do not have a divine quality then you could be right. But they do. These words are the testimony of a very few eye witnesses and chosen men and our eternity is determined by whether we believe them or whether we do not. There are things you cannot know. You cannot know about angels because you have not seen one but the only things you can know about angels is what is written in the scriptures. You cannot know about hell because you have not been there. You can believe only what the scriptures tell you. You can believe that God says he will save a sinner from hell on the condition of faith in Christ because he says he will. You can preach it loud and clear and quote him. But you cannot preach that God is pleased with the continual translation of his words into what you call a common language that needs 120 translations to get the message across.

You are the silly and windy one for proposing such a ridiculous and satanic idea.
I can easily preach that God is pleased with every valid Bible translation there is. When God gave the first Scriptures to the Israelis, He gave them in Hebrew, cuz that was their language. When Nebuchadnezzar wrote those parts of the Book of daniel he authored, he wrote it in Aramaic, the "lingua franca" of that time that both Babylonians & Jews understood. And when New Testament times came, mosta the Jews near or in Jerusalem spoke Koine Greek, as did most of the Romans in the area. (Latin was used mostly around the city of Rome.)
From your KJV-1 Cor.14:9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.10 There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them is without signification.11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.

Very true words ! Since mosta the readers here know modern English & not ancient Hebrew, ancient Aramaic, & Koine Greek, we depend upon English translations to read & hear God's word from. And the KJV, besides its goofs & booboos, is NOT in CONTEMPORARY English, & not every English user thoroughly understands it, especially many immigrants who don't know even current English that well.

The Satanic idea here is the KJVO myth, hatched by Satan & suggested by him to unsaved men to engender strife & dissent within & between congregations.

"The KJVO myth - Phony as a Ford Corvette !"
 

robycop3

Well-known member
My, MY, you're getting both desperate & silly. The KJV is the words of ITS translators, with most editions now in use modified in 1769 by Blayney, & since modified further by the Universities of Oxford & Cambridge, & other printers, & they omit mosta the extratextual material included in the AV 1611 by its makers.

And I have every valid English Bible translation to back up my claims, including your KJV. Its English was modern when it was made.

I can easily preach that God is pleased with every valid Bible translation there is. When God gave the first Scriptures to the Israelis, He gave them in Hebrew, cuz that was their language. When Nebuchadnezzar wrote those parts of the Book of daniel he authored, he wrote it in Aramaic, the "lingua franca" of that time that both Babylonians & Jews understood. And when New Testament times came, mosta the Jews near or in Jerusalem spoke Koine Greek, as did most of the Romans in the area. (Latin was used mostly around the city of Rome.)
From your KJV-1 Cor.14:9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.10 There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them is without signification.11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.

Very true words ! Since mosta the readers here know modern English & not ancient Hebrew, ancient Aramaic, & Koine Greek, we depend upon English translations to read & hear God's word from. And the KJV, besides its goofs & booboos, is NOT in CONTEMPORARY English, & not every English user thoroughly understands it, especially many immigrants who don't know even current English that well.

The Satanic idea here is the KJVO myth, hatched by Satan & suggested by him to unsaved men to engender strife & dissent within & between congregations.

"The KJVO myth - Phony as a Ford Corvette !"


The satanic idea is that one cannot believe the words of God when that is the very thing one must believe. You quote -1 Cor.14:9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.10 There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them is without signification.11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.

To quote a passage about written translations that has absolutely nothing to do with writing shows how out of touch with the truth you really are. I wonder if Paul would have made every other word about speech instead of about writing you would be cured of your blind hysteria. I seriously doubt it because when someone is unreasonable in a little, they are unreasonable in a lot.

Everything you have said is opinion and is not based on sound doctrine.
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Sorry, Chief; you're STILL 'way off-kilter !

Obviously, if one can't understand a spoken language, one wouldn't understand that same language if written, either !

I don't understand the languages God gave His word in, either spoken, written, or written in our alphabet. Thus, I depend on translations in my one language, current English. If you understand them, you have no need of English translations. THAT'S COMMON SENSE !


You're still implying that your KJV is the very word of God insteada just a translation of said word. Nothing about Scripture could be more-untrue. The blind hysteria is YOURS in taking up for an obviously-false doctrine.

You just can't address the goofs & booboos that've been pointed out in your KJV. You can't grasp the fact that there are several English translations that are just-as-much God's word as any other, & that your KJVO myth is just another of Satan's lies. I shall continue to expose that lie long as God permits. (As well as other lies & false doctrines about faith/worship on other subjects in appropriate venues.)

Meanwhile, I'll hammer the false KJVO myth here in this sub-forum.
 

robycop3

Well-known member
The cultic, dishonest origin of the current edition of the KJVO myth should raise a red flag among Christians. (Using the KJV is OK, but insisting it's "THE" English bible translation is telling a lie.)

Remember, this edition of the KJVO myth is derived from 7TH DAY ADVENTIST Dr. Ben Wilkinson's book, thich was legally but dishonestly plagiarized by J. J. Ray in his 1955 book, God Wrote Only One Bible. He copied much, verbatim from Dr. W's book, without acknowledging him in the slightest. Then, in 1970, Baptist preacher Dr. D. O. Fuller also copied from Dr. W's book, but at least acknowledged him, while being careful not to mention Dr. W's CULT AFFILIATION. Yes, those 3 boox started the current edition of the KJVO myth.

With THAT kinda beginning, how can anyone believe the KJVO myth is from GOD, especially after the bad results it's caused, such as strife & dissent within & between congregations, many a heated argument between individuals, & even more than one divorce ?

While I don't really knock one's exclusive use of the KJV, I certainly work against the KJVO MYTH, as it's a proven-false doctrine that causes a lotta problems.

Conclusion: The ACTUAL origin of the KJVO myth is from Satan !
 

JDS

Well-known member
Meanwhile, I'll hammer the false KJVO myth here in this sub-forum.
[/QUOTE]

The context you quoted has nothing to do with translating the scriptures. This epistle to the Corinthians is only the fifth NT epistle and the verse you quoted is written in a context to adjust a practice in this primitive church that was abusing the spiritual gift of tongues. The gift was legitimate but was limited as an apostolic gift to be used in the dissemination of revealed NT truth before the scriptures were recorded in writing. Paul, in Ephesians 3 said the mysteries were revealed to these special chosen men, the apostles and the prophets and they were those whom Jesus Christ sent to preach in passages like Mark 16 (a passage your translations cast much doubt upon ) in this new age when he himself would be in heaven. In this passage the apostolic gifts are five. Read it with me.

15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe;

1) In my name shall they cast out devils;
2) they shall speak with new tongues; 18
3) They shall take up serpents; and
4) if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them;
5) they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.

19 So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.

What was the purpose of these gifts? The following verse tells us. It was a new age with a new message going to new nations with new words. How would we know that God gave them? It would be by confirming miracles and the only time these miracles could be used is when someone of Israel is in the audience. That would be logical and reasonable because only ones of Israel had words and messages before that said something different. It was brand new for gentiles. The men, the apostles and prophets, were the only ones who wrote scripture and they were all eye witnesses to Jesus Christ and was with him during the entire length of his ministry, except the apostle Paul, who was given special revelation from the Spirit, he says. Read the verse.

20 And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. Amen.
Heb 2:3 How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him; 4. God also bearing them (them who heard him) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Prophets are the 70 disciple of Lk 10 and the group of which the replacement of Judas the betrayer was taken from. See Acts 1.

There were prophets ministering in the Corinthian church, and we can logically understand that, while Paul received a complete revelation of the mysteries of the church age at one time, the prophets received them piecemeal. Watch this.

1 Cor 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
29 Let the prophets speak two or three, and let the other judge.
30 If any thing be revealed to another (prophet) that sitteth by, let the first (prophet) hold his peace.
31 For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.
32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.


21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people (Israel); and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe (the gentiles), but to them that believe not (Israel): but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

We don't have prophets now. We have a complete bible that reveals the mind of God and his doctrines. But speech is still very important to God. Look at this. The sign gifts left the building in AD 70.

1 Cor 1:10 Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.

This as a command and here comes a false church that says they have been given a mandate from God to translate a certain set of manuscripts that calls many words and passages into question, and to keep doing it over and over again until the fellowship could have as many as 50 different divisions of what is called the word of God in one assembly. This bunch has more problems than the Corinthian church because they were at the beginning and this crowd has confirmed the word that false prophets shall arise and deceive many at the end. The only judgement of this gang is that they do not have the word of God, though they have 50 different boox.



You are to be blamed.
 

JDS

Well-known member
"I can easily preach that God is pleased with every valid Bible translation there is"

Pure unadulterated silliness. You might think one translation from the critical text is valid (you have scores of them you know) and your next door neighbor thinks it is not. You are preaching the doctrine of opinion, subjective opinion, and God is left out of the equation.
 

robycop3

Well-known member

The context you quoted has nothing to do with translating the scriptures. This epistle to the Corinthians is only the fifth NT epistle and the verse you quoted is written in a context to adjust a practice in this primitive church that was abusing the spiritual gift of tongues. The gift was legitimate but was limited as an apostolic gift to be used in the dissemination of revealed NT truth before the scriptures were recorded in writing. Paul, in Ephesians 3 said the mysteries were revealed to these special chosen men, the apostles and the prophets and they were those whom Jesus Christ sent to preach in passages like Mark 16 (a passage your translations cast much doubt upon ) in this new age when he himself would be in heaven. In this passage the apostolic gifts are five. Read it with me.

15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe;

1) In my name shall they cast out devils;
2) they shall speak with new tongues; 18
3) They shall take up serpents; and
4) if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them;
5) they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.

19 So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.

What was the purpose of these gifts? The following verse tells us. It was a new age with a new message going to new nations with new words. How would we know that God gave them? It would be by confirming miracles and the only time these miracles could be used is when someone of Israel is in the audience. That would be logical and reasonable because only ones of Israel had words and messages before that said something different. It was brand new for gentiles. The men, the apostles and prophets, were the only ones who wrote scripture and they were all eye witnesses to Jesus Christ and was with him during the entire length of his ministry, except the apostle Paul, who was given special revelation from the Spirit, he says. Read the verse.

20 And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. Amen.
Heb 2:3 How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him; 4. God also bearing them (them who heard him) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

Prophets are the 70 disciple of Lk 10 and the group of which the replacement of Judas the betrayer was taken from. See Acts 1.

There were prophets ministering in the Corinthian church, and we can logically understand that, while Paul received a complete revelation of the mysteries of the church age at one time, the prophets received them piecemeal. Watch this.

1 Cor 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
29 Let the prophets speak two or three, and let the other judge.
30 If any thing be revealed to another (prophet) that sitteth by, let the first (prophet) hold his peace.
31 For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.
32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.


21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people (Israel); and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe (the gentiles), but to them that believe not (Israel): but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

We don't have prophets now. We have a complete bible that reveals the mind of God and his doctrines. But speech is still very important to God. Look at this. The sign gifts left the building in AD 70.

1 Cor 1:10 Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.

This as a command and here comes a false church that says they have been given a mandate from God to translate a certain set of manuscripts that calls many words and passages into question, and to keep doing it over and over again until the fellowship could have as many as 50 different divisions of what is called the word of God in one assembly. This bunch has more problems than the Corinthian church because they were at the beginning and this crowd has confirmed the word that false prophets shall arise and deceive many at the end. The only judgement of this gang is that they do not have the word of God, though they have 50 different boox.



You are to be blamed.
More blather about things that have nothing to do with the KJVO myth.
First, the divisions you refer to were caused by the KJVO myth. There weren't too many before then, besides the various denoms. The British generally accepted new Bible versions when they came out, such as the 'Great Bible'. When tit mwas replaced by newer versions, there wasn't much argument, except some continued using the older ones. The KJV was thus accepted, but its PRICE kept it outta the hands of many commoners back then. Finally, it was made affordable, & the British govt. outlawed the sale or printing of previous versions, such as the Geneva. But the Geneva was still used for awhile by a fair number, especially non-Anglicans & non-calvinists.

But in modern times, when the inevitable replacements for the KJV came along, the KJVO myth became a force, causing dissent & divisions, altho it was quickly proven false. And it's entirely MAN-MADE, & given its cultic, dishonest origin, & the trouble it's caused, that's more proof it's from Satan. But in all fairness, I must say that, IMO, the British RV of 1881 is a groddy version, & it's the basis for the JWs' "New World Translation". But the NASV, NKJV, & ESV are accurate newer versions, made from an eclectic mix of some 5K NT mss. & mss. fragments. (As compared to 20 for the KJV.) So the part of the KJVO myth saying it's the ONLY English Bible translation is proven false.

Then, there's the PROVEN ERRORS in the KJV, which probe the KJV is NOT "the" word of God, to the exclusion of all other translations. God's ACTUAL word is perfect; the KJV is not.

Your arguments remind me of those of a "Flat-Earther", all imagination & guesswork. You really need to put on God's armor, pick up the sword He's provided, kick Satan's influence outta your life, & ask the Holy Spirit to show you the TRUTH !

And once more, as the KJVO myth has been proven to be a lie, when you tell it to someone else as if it's true, you're TELLING A LIE ! Think about that before you boost that lie again !
 

robycop3

Well-known member
"I can easily preach that God is pleased with every valid Bible translation there is"

Pure unadulterated silliness. You might think one translation from the critical text is valid (you have scores of them you know) and your next door neighbor thinks it is not. You are preaching the doctrine of opinion, subjective opinion, and God is left out of the equation.
[/QUOTE]
The silliness is all yours. You're fighting against God's providing at least some of His word in English at least since the time of William The Conqueror. It was first extensively written in English by Wycliffe in 1384, with intense opposition to English translations coming from the RCC til Henry VIII broke their power in England, "Bloody Mary" tried to restore the RCC's power & suppressed English Bible translations, but QE1 ended such opposition for good. And ever since her time, English users have had a variety of translations available mosta the time.

For awhile, the KJV dominated the English Bible translation scene, same as the Model T dominated the auto industry, even though it was not the first motor car ever made. However, the Model T's low price, durability, & ability to negotiate the cowpaths & trails which constituted most roads worldwide made it the predominant car of its time. Same for the KJV; it was common & affordable, & people clearly understood all its now-archaic language.

But, just as the Model T was replaced as roads were improved & other makers were making better cars, the KJV has been supplanted by better translations in OUR language, with many of the KJV's goofs not found in them. This is just part of God's progressions as time passes. Remember, GOD made all languages, & causes/allows them to change over time, & not by the simple addition of words. The day of the KJV is over & gone, same as that of the Model T.
 

JDS

Well-known member
More blather about things that have nothing to do with the KJVO myth.
First, the divisions you refer to were caused by the KJVO myth. There weren't too many before then, besides the various denoms. The British generally accepted new Bible versions when they came out, such as the 'Great Bible'. When tit mwas replaced by newer versions, there wasn't much argument, except some continued using the older ones. The KJV was thus accepted, but its PRICE kept it outta the hands of many commoners back then. Finally, it was made affordable, & the British govt. outlawed the sale or printing of previous versions, such as the Geneva. But the Geneva was still used for awhile by a fair number, especially non-Anglicans & non-calvinists.

But in modern times, when the inevitable replacements for the KJV came along, the KJVO myth became a force, causing dissent & divisions, altho it was quickly proven false. And it's entirely MAN-MADE, & given its cultic, dishonest origin, & the trouble it's caused, that's more proof it's from Satan. But in all fairness, I must say that, IMO, the British RV of 1881 is a groddy version, & it's the basis for the JWs' "New World Translation". But the NASV, NKJV, & ESV are accurate newer versions, made from an eclectic mix of some 5K NT mss. & mss. fragments. (As compared to 20 for the KJV.) So the part of the KJVO myth saying it's the ONLY English Bible translation is proven false.

Then, there's the PROVEN ERRORS in the KJV, which probe the KJV is NOT "the" word of God, to the exclusion of all other translations. God's ACTUAL word is perfect; the KJV is not.

Your arguments remind me of those of a "Flat-Earther", all imagination & guesswork. You really need to put on God's armor, pick up the sword He's provided, kick Satan's influence outta your life, & ask the Holy Spirit to show you the TRUTH !

And once more, as the KJVO myth has been proven to be a lie, when you tell it to someone else as if it's true, you're TELLING A LIE ! Think about that before you boost that lie again !
Give it up. Make yourself some more translations and peddle them out if you must and try to be satisfied. This is not how God does things and if you believed the scriptures you would know his ways.
 

JDS

Well-known member
The silliness is all yours. You're fighting against God's providing at least some of His word in English at least since the time of William The Conqueror. It was first extensively written in English by Wycliffe in 1384, with intense opposition to English translations coming from the RCC til Henry VIII broke their power in England, "Bloody Mary" tried to restore the RCC's power & suppressed English Bible translations, but QE1 ended such opposition for good. And ever since her time, English users have had a variety of translations available mosta the time.

For awhile, the KJV dominated the English Bible translation scene, same as the Model T dominated the auto industry, even though it was not the first motor car ever made. However, the Model T's low price, durability, & ability to negotiate the cowpaths & trails which constituted most roads worldwide made it the predominant car of its time. Same for the KJV; it was common & affordable, & people clearly understood all its now-archaic language.

But, just as the Model T was replaced as roads were improved & other makers were making better cars, the KJV has been supplanted by better translations in OUR language, with many of the KJV's goofs not found in them. This is just part of God's progressions as time passes. Remember, GOD made all languages, & causes/allows them to change over time, & not by the simple addition of words. The day of the KJV is over & gone, same as that of the Model T.
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Automobiles? The comparison of automobiles with the scriptures makes no sense. Are you teaching progressive revelation with newer translations? Have you thought through this ridiculous argument? This is just a step farther into hysteria.
 

robycop3

Well-known member
The silliness is all yours. You're fighting against God's providing at least some of His word in English at least since the time of William The Conqueror. It was first extensively written in English by Wycliffe in 1384, with intense opposition to English translations coming from the RCC til Henry VIII broke their power in England, "Bloody Mary" tried to restore the RCC's power & suppressed English Bible translations, but QE1 ended such opposition for good. And ever since her time, English users have had a variety of translations available mosta the time.

For awhile, the KJV dominated the English Bible translation scene, same as the Model T dominated the auto industry, even though it was not the first motor car ever made. However, the Model T's low price, durability, & ability to negotiate the cowpaths & trails which constituted most roads worldwide made it the predominant car of its time. Same for the KJV; it was common & affordable, & people clearly understood all its now-archaic language.

But, just as the Model T was replaced as roads were improved & other makers were making better cars, the KJV has been supplanted by better translations in OUR language, with many of the KJV's goofs not found in them. This is just part of God's progressions as time passes. Remember, GOD made all languages, & causes/allows them to change over time, & not by the simple addition of words. The day of the KJV is over & gone, same as that of the Model T.


Automobiles? The comparison of automobiles with the scriptures makes no sense. Are you teaching progressive revelation with newer translations? Have you thought through this ridiculous argument? This is just a step farther into hysteria.
[/QUOTE]
You just CANNOT begin to defend your false KJVO myth.
Who said anything about "progressive revelation" ? That's one of Ruckman's nonsensical arguments. He said it culminated in the KJV. First, there's no such thing; second, English Bible translation didn't end with the KJV. What IS progressive is God's keeping His word in CURRENT language.
 

robycop3

Well-known member
Give it up. Make yourself some more translations and peddle them out if you must and try to be satisfied. This is not how God does things and if you believed the scriptures you would know his ways.
I believe the Scriptures & not silly & false man-made doctrines of faith/worship such as your Satan-hatched KJVO myth. You can't defend the first point of it; all you can do is say "It's right because..."
 

JDS

Well-known member
Who said anything about "progressive revelation" ?
Yes, progressive revelation. I ask that because modern religious institutions and theologians continue to translate the same manuscripts into the same language, English. There must be an end game and most people who post here say we get more understanding with each new translation. Logic! More translations equal more knowledge. Would you go back and be satisfied with the first translation by the NIV board? If not, why not? It can only be because there is more information from God in the latest translations. Why am I wrong to think you are teaching progressive revelation when you are getting new revelations from the newest translations?

What has been the fruit of new translations ad nauseum? Your hysteria against old out dated revelation from God, as you would have us believe, continues to grow stronger with every new translation you are able to read.

I reject you and your scholarship and your attitude towards Christians who are better than you and the anti Christ philosophy that you promote here daily.
 
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robycop3

Well-known member
Yes, progressive revelation. I ask that because modern religious institutions and theologians continue to translate the same manuscripts into the same language, English. There must be an end game and most people who post here say we get more understanding with each new translation. Logic! More translations equal more knowledge. Would you go back and be satisfied with the first translation by the NIV board? If not, why not? It can only be because there is more information from God in the latest translations. Why am I wrong to think you are teaching progressive revelation when you are getting new revelations from the newest translations?
[/QUOTE]
To answer your question, new translations are made from the same sources. Many Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek words have multiple meanings in English, which has more words than any other language. Context doesn't always tell a translator what the best meaning is. Thus, different translators use different meanings, giving us a broader overview of Scriptures. OTOH, YOUR view is that of some British of long-ago, who had limited resources to work from.
What has been the fruit of new translations ad nauseum?
A better understanding of Scripture.
Your hysteria against old out dated revelation from God, as you would have us believe, continues to grow stronger with every new translation you are able to read.
No hysteria; just FACTS. What's been the fruit of your KJVO myth ? Strife & dissent within and between many congregations, & casting doubt on several excellent newer translations of Scripture, as well as on the KJV itself due to some peoples' slavish devotion to it.
I reject you and your scholarship and your attitude towards Christians who are better than you and the anti Christ philosophy that you promote here daily.

Reject all ya wish; I don't care. I'm still gonna keep telling the TRUTH. And you're OUTRIGHT LYING in saying I have an "anti Christ philosophy". Please show us some proof of that, or wear the "Liar" label.

Let's look at your record so far.
You haven't refuted one word about the KJV's goofs & booboos.
You haven't shown the readership one word of Scripture supporting the KJVO myth.
But yet you expect people to believe that false doctrine.
Your record is equal to the 2008 Detroit Lions & the 2017 Cleveland Browns-no wins, all losses. But you're trying to defend a false doctrine & that's always gonna lose. The KJVO myth is phony as a Ford Corvette & is indefensible.
 

Buzzard

Well-known member
Nehemiah 8:8 indicates that part of the Divine plan was translations (apparently multiple) into contemporary and clear language.
Neh.8:8
So they read in the book in the law of God distinctly,
and gave the sense, and caused them to understand the reading.

How do you get
"the Divine plan was translations (apparently multiple)"
from the words recorded in Nehemiah ???
 

Buzzard

Well-known member
Yes, progressive revelation. I ask that because modern religious institutions and theologians continue to translate the same manuscripts into the same language, English. There must be an end game and most people who post here say we get more understanding with each new translation. Logic! More translations equal more knowledge. Would you go back and be satisfied with the first translation by the NIV board? If not, why not? It can only be because there is more information from God in the latest translations. Why am I wrong to think you are teaching progressive revelation when you are getting new revelations from the newest translations?

What has been the fruit of new translations ad nauseum? Your hysteria against old out dated revelation from God, as you would have us believe, continues to grow stronger with every new translation you are able to read.
Ecc. 12:12
And further, by these, my son, be admonished:
of making many books there is no end;
and much study is a weariness of the flesh.

and the result is ?????????????????
 
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