How silly.The God of heaven is not like the god you are preaching. He does not sanction all these new translations from the critical manuscripts at the end of the age. God is not even interested in easy understanding, a major reason given for producing all these versions.
In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father; for so it seemed good in thy sight.
1 Corinthians 1:26-29
26 For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:
27 But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty;
28 And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought things that are:
29 That no flesh should glory in his presence.
There are more divisions and more denomination, more para church ministries, more women preachers in the last one hundred years with this new light philosophy though a multitude of new translations and paraphrases than all the centuries before and Jesus wondered if there would be faith on the earth when he returns.
I reject your philosophy and do not believe God had anything to do with this practice. It would certainly be out of character for him.
Its purpose was to provide one standard Bible version for all Anglican congregations, as various ones were using everything from the Geneva to Tyndale's, & everything in between. But both we & modern England have much-more-diverse populations now, so several English-language translations are now in use. Still, NOWHERE is GOD limited to just one translation in any language.I had thought that the KJV was worked up by committees consisting of a mix of Anglicans and Puritans, to the exclusion or omission of several denominations that became influential well after 1611.
[/QUOTE]God has not turned over his words to 120 translation committees to choose their own words and then write in them that they are the words of God. They are not. They are the words of the translators. There is no bible for your claims. You are sitting in the seat of the critic with no bible to back you up. It is your opinion. All that stuff you have written is opinion pieces. If you could quote something to confirm your doctrine you would. You cannot.
I can easily preach that God is pleased with every valid Bible translation there is. When God gave the first Scriptures to the Israelis, He gave them in Hebrew, cuz that was their language. When Nebuchadnezzar wrote those parts of the Book of daniel he authored, he wrote it in Aramaic, the "lingua franca" of that time that both Babylonians & Jews understood. And when New Testament times came, mosta the Jews near or in Jerusalem spoke Koine Greek, as did most of the Romans in the area. (Latin was used mostly around the city of Rome.)Now, if you take the position that the scriptures are only a narrative and do not have a divine quality then you could be right. But they do. These words are the testimony of a very few eye witnesses and chosen men and our eternity is determined by whether we believe them or whether we do not. There are things you cannot know. You cannot know about angels because you have not seen one but the only things you can know about angels is what is written in the scriptures. You cannot know about hell because you have not been there. You can believe only what the scriptures tell you. You can believe that God says he will save a sinner from hell on the condition of faith in Christ because he says he will. You can preach it loud and clear and quote him. But you cannot preach that God is pleased with the continual translation of his words into what you call a common language that needs 120 translations to get the message across.
You are the silly and windy one for proposing such a ridiculous and satanic idea.
My, MY, you're getting both desperate & silly. The KJV is the words of ITS translators, with most editions now in use modified in 1769 by Blayney, & since modified further by the Universities of Oxford & Cambridge, & other printers, & they omit mosta the extratextual material included in the AV 1611 by its makers.
And I have every valid English Bible translation to back up my claims, including your KJV. Its English was modern when it was made.
I can easily preach that God is pleased with every valid Bible translation there is. When God gave the first Scriptures to the Israelis, He gave them in Hebrew, cuz that was their language. When Nebuchadnezzar wrote those parts of the Book of daniel he authored, he wrote it in Aramaic, the "lingua franca" of that time that both Babylonians & Jews understood. And when New Testament times came, mosta the Jews near or in Jerusalem spoke Koine Greek, as did most of the Romans in the area. (Latin was used mostly around the city of Rome.)
From your KJV-1 Cor.14:9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.10 There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them is without signification.11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.
Very true words ! Since mosta the readers here know modern English & not ancient Hebrew, ancient Aramaic, & Koine Greek, we depend upon English translations to read & hear God's word from. And the KJV, besides its goofs & booboos, is NOT in CONTEMPORARY English, & not every English user thoroughly understands it, especially many immigrants who don't know even current English that well.
The Satanic idea here is the KJVO myth, hatched by Satan & suggested by him to unsaved men to engender strife & dissent within & between congregations.
"The KJVO myth - Phony as a Ford Corvette !"
[/QUOTE]Meanwhile, I'll hammer the false KJVO myth here in this sub-forum.
More blather about things that have nothing to do with the KJVO myth.The context you quoted has nothing to do with translating the scriptures. This epistle to the Corinthians is only the fifth NT epistle and the verse you quoted is written in a context to adjust a practice in this primitive church that was abusing the spiritual gift of tongues. The gift was legitimate but was limited as an apostolic gift to be used in the dissemination of revealed NT truth before the scriptures were recorded in writing. Paul, in Ephesians 3 said the mysteries were revealed to these special chosen men, the apostles and the prophets and they were those whom Jesus Christ sent to preach in passages like Mark 16 (a passage your translations cast much doubt upon ) in this new age when he himself would be in heaven. In this passage the apostolic gifts are five. Read it with me.
15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe;
1) In my name shall they cast out devils;
2) they shall speak with new tongues; 18
3) They shall take up serpents; and
4) if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them;
5) they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.
19 So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.
What was the purpose of these gifts? The following verse tells us. It was a new age with a new message going to new nations with new words. How would we know that God gave them? It would be by confirming miracles and the only time these miracles could be used is when someone of Israel is in the audience. That would be logical and reasonable because only ones of Israel had words and messages before that said something different. It was brand new for gentiles. The men, the apostles and prophets, were the only ones who wrote scripture and they were all eye witnesses to Jesus Christ and was with him during the entire length of his ministry, except the apostle Paul, who was given special revelation from the Spirit, he says. Read the verse.
20 And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. Amen.
Heb 2:3 How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him; 4. God also bearing them (them who heard him) witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?
Prophets are the 70 disciple of Lk 10 and the group of which the replacement of Judas the betrayer was taken from. See Acts 1.
There were prophets ministering in the Corinthian church, and we can logically understand that, while Paul received a complete revelation of the mysteries of the church age at one time, the prophets received them piecemeal. Watch this.
1 Cor 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
29 Let the prophets speak two or three, and let the other judge.
30 If any thing be revealed to another (prophet) that sitteth by, let the first (prophet) hold his peace.
31 For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.
32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people (Israel); and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe (the gentiles), but to them that believe not (Israel): but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
We don't have prophets now. We have a complete bible that reveals the mind of God and his doctrines. But speech is still very important to God. Look at this. The sign gifts left the building in AD 70.
1 Cor 1:10 Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.
This as a command and here comes a false church that says they have been given a mandate from God to translate a certain set of manuscripts that calls many words and passages into question, and to keep doing it over and over again until the fellowship could have as many as 50 different divisions of what is called the word of God in one assembly. This bunch has more problems than the Corinthian church because they were at the beginning and this crowd has confirmed the word that false prophets shall arise and deceive many at the end. The only judgement of this gang is that they do not have the word of God, though they have 50 different boox.
You are to be blamed.
[/QUOTE]"I can easily preach that God is pleased with every valid Bible translation there is"
Pure unadulterated silliness. You might think one translation from the critical text is valid (you have scores of them you know) and your next door neighbor thinks it is not. You are preaching the doctrine of opinion, subjective opinion, and God is left out of the equation.
Give it up. Make yourself some more translations and peddle them out if you must and try to be satisfied. This is not how God does things and if you believed the scriptures you would know his ways.More blather about things that have nothing to do with the KJVO myth.
First, the divisions you refer to were caused by the KJVO myth. There weren't too many before then, besides the various denoms. The British generally accepted new Bible versions when they came out, such as the 'Great Bible'. When tit mwas replaced by newer versions, there wasn't much argument, except some continued using the older ones. The KJV was thus accepted, but its PRICE kept it outta the hands of many commoners back then. Finally, it was made affordable, & the British govt. outlawed the sale or printing of previous versions, such as the Geneva. But the Geneva was still used for awhile by a fair number, especially non-Anglicans & non-calvinists.
But in modern times, when the inevitable replacements for the KJV came along, the KJVO myth became a force, causing dissent & divisions, altho it was quickly proven false. And it's entirely MAN-MADE, & given its cultic, dishonest origin, & the trouble it's caused, that's more proof it's from Satan. But in all fairness, I must say that, IMO, the British RV of 1881 is a groddy version, & it's the basis for the JWs' "New World Translation". But the NASV, NKJV, & ESV are accurate newer versions, made from an eclectic mix of some 5K NT mss. & mss. fragments. (As compared to 20 for the KJV.) So the part of the KJVO myth saying it's the ONLY English Bible translation is proven false.
Then, there's the PROVEN ERRORS in the KJV, which probe the KJV is NOT "the" word of God, to the exclusion of all other translations. God's ACTUAL word is perfect; the KJV is not.
Your arguments remind me of those of a "Flat-Earther", all imagination & guesswork. You really need to put on God's armor, pick up the sword He's provided, kick Satan's influence outta your life, & ask the Holy Spirit to show you the TRUTH !
And once more, as the KJVO myth has been proven to be a lie, when you tell it to someone else as if it's true, you're TELLING A LIE ! Think about that before you boost that lie again !
The silliness is all yours. You're fighting against God's providing at least some of His word in English at least since the time of William The Conqueror. It was first extensively written in English by Wycliffe in 1384, with intense opposition to English translations coming from the RCC til Henry VIII broke their power in England, "Bloody Mary" tried to restore the RCC's power & suppressed English Bible translations, but QE1 ended such opposition for good. And ever since her time, English users have had a variety of translations available mosta the time.
For awhile, the KJV dominated the English Bible translation scene, same as the Model T dominated the auto industry, even though it was not the first motor car ever made. However, the Model T's low price, durability, & ability to negotiate the cowpaths & trails which constituted most roads worldwide made it the predominant car of its time. Same for the KJV; it was common & affordable, & people clearly understood all its now-archaic language.
But, just as the Model T was replaced as roads were improved & other makers were making better cars, the KJV has been supplanted by better translations in OUR language, with many of the KJV's goofs not found in them. This is just part of God's progressions as time passes. Remember, GOD made all languages, & causes/allows them to change over time, & not by the simple addition of words. The day of the KJV is over & gone, same as that of the Model T.
I believe the Scriptures & not silly & false man-made doctrines of faith/worship such as your Satan-hatched KJVO myth. You can't defend the first point of it; all you can do is say "It's right because..."Give it up. Make yourself some more translations and peddle them out if you must and try to be satisfied. This is not how God does things and if you believed the scriptures you would know his ways.
Yes, progressive revelation. I ask that because modern religious institutions and theologians continue to translate the same manuscripts into the same language, English. There must be an end game and most people who post here say we get more understanding with each new translation. Logic! More translations equal more knowledge. Would you go back and be satisfied with the first translation by the NIV board? If not, why not? It can only be because there is more information from God in the latest translations. Why am I wrong to think you are teaching progressive revelation when you are getting new revelations from the newest translations?Who said anything about "progressive revelation" ?
[/QUOTE]Yes, progressive revelation. I ask that because modern religious institutions and theologians continue to translate the same manuscripts into the same language, English. There must be an end game and most people who post here say we get more understanding with each new translation. Logic! More translations equal more knowledge. Would you go back and be satisfied with the first translation by the NIV board? If not, why not? It can only be because there is more information from God in the latest translations. Why am I wrong to think you are teaching progressive revelation when you are getting new revelations from the newest translations?
A better understanding of Scripture.
No hysteria; just FACTS. What's been the fruit of your KJVO myth ? Strife & dissent within and between many congregations, & casting doubt on several excellent newer translations of Scripture, as well as on the KJV itself due to some peoples' slavish devotion to it.
Neh.8:8Nehemiah 8:8 indicates that part of the Divine plan was translations (apparently multiple) into contemporary and clear language.
Ecc. 12:12Yes, progressive revelation. I ask that because modern religious institutions and theologians continue to translate the same manuscripts into the same language, English. There must be an end game and most people who post here say we get more understanding with each new translation. Logic! More translations equal more knowledge. Would you go back and be satisfied with the first translation by the NIV board? If not, why not? It can only be because there is more information from God in the latest translations. Why am I wrong to think you are teaching progressive revelation when you are getting new revelations from the newest translations?
What has been the fruit of new translations ad nauseum? Your hysteria against old out dated revelation from God, as you would have us believe, continues to grow stronger with every new translation you are able to read.