The bible
Christ died for all
Your theology Christ died for the elect only
Both can only be true if the elect alone = all
Then of course there is one who constantly does claim all sheep or all elect are meant
You are aware, I hope, that the text "Christ died for all" NEVER appears anywhere in the Bible? That's why you should always provide citations, to make sure you're quoting it accurately.
Perhaps you're referring to the following:
2Cor. 5:14 For the love of Christ controls
us, because
we have concluded this: that one has
died for all, therefore all have died;
15 and he
died for all, that those who live might no longer live for themselves but for him who for their sake died and was raised.
As with Paul's first epistle to the Corinthians, he is referring to a particular group, "us", and "we", and both epistles are referring to CHRISTIANS, not "everyone who has ever lived".
I have no need to redefine "all" to mean "elect", or "some".
"All" fits perfectly well as simply meaning, "all".
But when we use the term "all", there is a particular GROUP that we are including everyone IN THAT GROUP.
We can talk about "all Americans".
We can talk about "all Republicans".
We can talk about "all blind people".
We can talk about "all members of the MLB"
I can talk about "all my students".
When we see the word, "all", we have to figure out what GROUP the author is including "all" from that group. So "all" truly means "all", there is no need for Calvinists to redefine it as per your straw-man. It simply means EVERYONE in the particular group being spoken of.
In 2 Cor. 6, it is referring to all of the "we/us" group.
Which is all CHRISTIANS.