It's not my fault you want to play make believe with how the words of the Bible are properly defined.
Christians are not referred to as theotēs in Ephesians 3:19, genius.
Are you actually suggesting the fullness of theotēs is not present in God Himself, genius?
Or is this just your madman way of throwing up the checkerboard again?
And you don't need to be a genius to know that Colossians 2:10 has the verb form for the noun fullness in verse 9. Believers have this same fullness because they are in Christ who has this fullness. That just might be why Ephesians 3:19 says believers have the fullness of GOD, right genius?