Treatise from Issues, Etc. about how Paul writes about "faith alone"....

[CrowCross]

But the Biblical NT does use the "precise phrase"-- "faith alone"--and it isn't friendly to faith alone theology:

Two simple points....

1) The context of James 2:24 is not arguing against the doctrine of salvation by faith alone.

2) The Bible does not need to contain the precise phrase “faith alone” in order to clearly teach salvation by faith alone. Much like it doesn't need the terms "Trinity" or "Hypostatic Union" to teach either.

One of the usages of the word according to Strongs definition is
"2. τινα, to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered"

James 2:24 could read just as easily read....24 You see that a person shows evidence by works and not by faith alone.

James 2:24 does not argue against salvation by faith alone. Rather, it argues against a salvation that is alone, a salvation devoid of good works and obedience to God’s Word.

Part 2:
Any verse that ascribes salvation to faith/belief, with no other requirement mentioned, is a declaration that salvation is by faith alone.
John 3:16 declares that salvation is given to “whoever believes in Him.”
Acts 16:31 proclaims, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved.”
Ephesians 2:8 says, “For by grace you have been saved through faith.”
Romans 3:28 tells us "man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."
Romans 4:5 mentions "the one who does not work, but believes in Him"
Romans 5:1 says "Therefore, since we have been justified through faith,"
Galatians 2:16 proclaims "we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ"
Galations 3:24 says "Law has become our trainer unto Christ, so that we might be justified by faith."
Ephesians 1:13 says "when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit"
Philippians 3:9 says "not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ,"

So, dberrie2020...you presented one verse....ONE VERSE...and I presented ten that proclaim faith alone...no works.
I also showed you how you have been using the word "justified" incorrectly in James 2:24.

Ball is in your court to try to defend your position once again....

GQ is a reference for this post.

Don't forget dberrie2020....you can be freed from the slavery of mormons works to obtain their false salvation.

 

[e v e 21]

Agreed, the evil one is a trickster. Novelty went from bring a heresy to accepted to tradition.

yes

 

[e v e 21]

Agreed, the evil one is a trickster. Novelty went from bring a heresy to accepted to tradition.

please He get us out of this dark earth... babylon... soon

 

[BJ Bear]

Jesus taught gospel truths in the book of Matthew--that is why the first four books in the Biblical NT are referred to as the "gospels". One might make the point it was during the time of the Mosaic Law, but not that it was exclusive to it.

That is an illogical and irrelevant reply since the question you previously asked and which was answered was about a particular verse. But your latest reply is without any reference to that verse. The question isn't whether the gospel is ever mentioned in Scripture but whether the passage you asked about was law or not.

Is it your intent to play yet another game of, "Who Is On First?" If it is not then why don't you recognize and post according to the intended meaning of a word which is determined by the immediate context?

If we use the word, "bar," as the example word to be understood according to the immediate context then here are some examples of the word being used in different contexts resulting in different intended meanings.

1. The dancer in the studio went to the bar to stretch and warm up.

2. The social drinker went to the bar to have a drink with his friends.

3. The guard went to bar people from entering the building.

Apply that knowledge of the intended meaning of a word being determined by the immediate context to how the word law is used in Scripture. If you do then you will find that the word law in the narrow sense refers to what God commands or demands of men which has an associated promise or punishment attached to it. The word law in a broader sense can refer to a doctrine or teaching.

The circumstance of a different intended meaning occurs when the word gospel is considered according to the immediate context in Scripture. For example, the gospel in the narrow sense refers to the person and work of Christ for all men. The gospel in a broader sense can refer to a different purported good news that isn't good news at all according to the Apostle. It isn't good news because it isn't the good news of the person and work of Christ for all men.

The Lord's distinction of law and gospel is found throughout Scripture. A succinct example from Scripture is found in Romans 6:23. In the quote below the law will be in standard text and the Gospel will be bold red.

“For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.” (Rom 6:23, KJVA)

That it does not align with the Lutheran theology does not mean the "gospels" aren't gospel.

There are no passages in Scripture which do not align with men being saved by grace through faith, and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God. Not of works lest any man should boast. Eph 2:8-9

That some people think that there are passages which do not align with the aforementioned faith alone, faith apart from works, is an indicator that some people have never had a preacher or they didn't listen to him.

A preacher would have told them that in the gospel of Christ, the objective true good news of the person and work of Christ for all men, the justification of God is revealed. (It is not the justification of men is revealed by their works.)

It,, the justification of God, is revealed from faith, the faith of God incarnate, that is, the faith of the true Christ, for faith, the faith of all men. As it is written, the just shall live from or by [ek] faith. See Romans 1:15-17.

 

[dberrie2020]

Two simple points....

1) The context of James 2:24 is not arguing against the doctrine of salvation by faith alone.

Yes it is:

James 2:14---King James Version
14 What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?

2) The Bible does not need to contain the precise phrase “faith alone” in order to clearly teach salvation by faith alone.

But the Bible does contain that very phrase:

James 2:24---New American Standard Bible
24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.

You aren't thinking "not by faith alone"--means--"salvation by faith alone"?

Much like it doesn't need the terms "Trinity" or "Hypostatic Union" to teach either.

Glad you realize neither of those terms are found in the Biblical text either.

One of the usages of the word according to Strongs definition is
"2. τινα, to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered"
James 2:24 could read just as easily read....24 You see that a person shows evidence by works and not by faith alone.

But it doesn't.

James 2:24 does not argue against salvation by faith alone. Rather, it argues against a salvation that is alone, a salvation devoid of good works and obedience to God’s Word.

LOL!!! Crow--when you show us what works you add to faith in obtaining salvation--is the day you no longer believe in faith alone theology.

That's just a claim of those who are too embarrassed to admit they believe in obtaining eternal life through a faith without works--dead faith.

 

[dberrie2020]

Part 2:
Any verse that ascribes salvation to faith/belief, with no other requirement mentioned, is a declaration that salvation is by faith alone.

That's just a postulation by those who believe when they find the term "faith"--it is a reference to a faith without works. As James testified--that is nothing but dead faith:

James 2:26---King James Version
26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.

John 3:16 declares that salvation is given to “whoever believes in Him.”

So--are these the one who believe in Him?

1 John 2:3-4---King James Version
3 And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments.
4 He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in

Luke 6:46---King James Version
46 And why call ye me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?

So, dberrie2020...you presented one verse....ONE VERSE...and I presented ten that proclaim faith alone...no works.

You haven't presented the first verse which even mentions "faith alone". Again--there is but one verse in the entire Biblical text which mentions the term "faith alone"--and it's this one:

James 2:24---New American Standard Bible
24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.

 

[dberrie2020]

The Lord's distinction of law and gospel is found throughout Scripture. A succinct example from Scripture is found in Romans 6:23. In the quote below the law will be in standard text and the Gospel will be bold red.

“For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.” (Rom 6:23, KJVA)

The free gift went to all men:

Romans 5:18---King James Version
18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.


"came upon"--past tense.

IOW--through the Atonement of Jesus Christ--all men now have the opportunity to inherit eternal life. The doors to eternal life is open to all men, as a free gift. All are absolved of the condemnation of the Fall--and are born free--due to Christ's Atonement and resurrection. Death and hell conquered for all men--as it relates to the Fall.

If one would obtain the forgiveness of their personal sins:

Acts 2:38---King James Version
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

There is a difference between being absolved of the condemnation of the Fall, and answering for our own choices, and not Adam's--and being forgiven of our personal sins.

There are no passages in Scripture which do not align with men being saved by grace through faith,

But not through a faith without works:

James 2:26---King James Version
26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.

And that is what faith alone theology preaches--obtaining eternal life through a faith without works.

and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God. Not of works lest any man should boast. Eph 2:8-9

Paul differentiated between the works here:

1 Corinthians 7:19---King James Version
19 Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God.

To Paul--the "works" there is circumcision. The gospel contains keeping the commandments.

Anathema to faith alone theology.

That some people think that there are passages which do not align with the aforementioned faith alone, faith apart from works, is an indicator that some people have never had a preacher or they didn't listen to him.

Apart from the works of the Law--but not apart from acts of obedience to Jesus Christ:

Matthew 7:19-21---King James Version
19 Every tree that bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire.
20 Wherefore by their fruits ye shall know them.
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.

What is your evidence that "faith" is apart from acts of obedience to Jesus Christ?

A preacher would have told them that in the gospel of Christ, the objective true good news of the person and work of Christ for all men, the justification of God is revealed. (It is not the justification of men is revealed by their works.)

It,, the justification of God, is revealed from faith, the faith of God incarnate, that is, the faith of the true Christ, for faith, the faith of all men. As it is written, the just shall live from or by [ek] faith. See Romans 1:15-17.

What is your evidence these didn't live by faith?

Galatians 6:7-9---King James Version
7 Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap.
8 For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting.
9 And let us not be weary in well doing: for in due season we shall reap, if we faint not.

 

[CrowCross]

Yes it is:







James 2:14---King James Version



14 What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?















But the Bible does contain that very phrase:







James 2:24---New American Standard Bible



24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.







You aren't thinking "not by faith alone"--means--"salvation by faith alone"?















Glad you realize neither of those terms are found in the Biblical text either.















But it doesn't.















LOL!!! Crow--when you show us what works you add to faith in obtaining salvation--is the day you no longer believe in faith alone theology.







That's just a claim of those who are too embarrassed to admit they believe in obtaining eternal life through a faith without works--dead faith.



dberrie2020.....you work for your salvation for the sole purpose of saving EDITED FOR LANGUAGE rather than working to glorify God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. Was that blunt enough for you?







Do you honestly think you can receive salvation by earning it? The true christian knows they have eternal life...right now...RIGHT NOW dberrie2020...you...and your mormon buddies on the other hand can put on your white robes and only hope you did all the right things.

 

[CrowCross]

That's just a postulation by those who believe when they find the term "faith"--it is a reference to a faith without works. As James testified--that is nothing but dead faith:

Until you understand this you will not have eternal life in Jesus Christ....Saving FAITH produces good works. Works do not produce saving FAITH.

You want to be saved? Believe in Christ alone....it's that simple.

 

[BJ Bear]

This is best addressed together with the issue of "what are good works" that you raised below.



The two questions can be considered independently in the sense that they are independent of the fact that Christ is our salvation. But this too can only be answered in the context of what you raised next....

They are not independent in the context of justification before God, the context of the OP. Saying Christ is our salvation in biblical terms includes saying Christ is our justification, sanctification, etc

You have hit the nail on the head here. This is indeed the crux of the issue of good works. As you said, a work can be considered good in terms of what is accomplished. Furthermore, such works can be done for good reasons or for selfish reasons. This issue is dealt with nicely in the 2019 Christmas movie, "Klaus", where a spoiled son of a postmaster inadvertently brings peace and joy to the feuding town of Smeerensburg, but only for selfish reasons. (I highly recommend the movie!)

Thanks for the recommendation.

To use your terms, it was not done with a true heart freed from sin, death, and the devil. But that is a very specific definition of "good works". If you use that definition, then your conclusions about the relationship with salvation is almost a tautology. But what is the use of stating a tautology?

Quibbling over law keeping isn't the topic of thread, but abusing and misusing the law as a means of justification before God unto eternal life is the topic. Through the law, that written on the heart and that given through Moses, is the knowledge of sin.

The categorical statements of Scripture are not tautologies.

I will just state that under the common definition of "good", some people who are "bad" sometimes do good things. Sometimes they even do them sincerely and altruistically. Those act do not make up for the bad things they do, and they certainly don't bring salvation. But I think there is still a good reason to call those acts "good" based on the effect and the sincerity with which they are done.

That type of measure is the basis of the distributed justification of the ancient philosophers who knew nothing of the gospel of Jesus Christ. It's a great tool for the use of running a society or earthly kingdom, even a theocracy, but it is inadequate and misused in the context of the OP and the linked article.

Again, this is part of your tautology, and therefore does not really state anything consequential.

The categorical statements of Scripture are consequential and not tautologies. God's answer or solution to sin from the beginning was the promise of the seed rather than a giving of the law.

I will finish replying later.

 

[LifeIn]

I will finish replying later.

Well, I waited two days for you to finish, but in case you don't get around to saying more, I will reply now.

They are not independent in the context of justification before God, the context of the OP. Saying Christ is our salvation in biblical terms includes saying Christ is our justification, sanctification, etc

The two questions were "Can an unsaved person do good works" and "Can a saved person fail to do good works". In the context of justification before God, works are not good if they do not flow from justification by faith. But tell that to the beneficiary of the good works. Take the Dickens story A Christmas Carol. (Talking about fictitious characters makes it easier to distill the point being made.) In that story, Scrooge ends up doing good works for his employee and his ailing son. But we know nothing about Scrooge's ultimate acceptance of Jesus Christ as his Lord and Savior. We can easily imagine that he ended up being essentially a secular humanist - with feelings toward humanity, but paid no attention to faith in Jesus. Is that so hard to imagine? In that case, what are we to call the works done by the reformed Scrooge? Are they good works? Or merely "works". I think Bob Cratchit and his whole family would all them good.

Quibbling over law keeping isn't the topic of thread, but abusing and misusing the law as a means of justification before God unto eternal life is the topic.

I never said good works is a means of justification before God. I just said we can call the works good in the human sense. This does not means that the person doing those works is good. As Jesus says, "If you then, though you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give the Holy Spirit to those who ask him!” He is acknowledging that evil people can do good works for their children. The good works by no means excuse the evil they do.

That type of measure is the basis of the distributed justification of the ancient philosophers who knew nothing of the gospel of Jesus Christ.

That others misused the concept of good works to prove justification does not mean I am misusing it. I am not claiming any kind of justification - "distributed" or otherwise. I am simply saying that in the common parlance, good works, in the human sense, exist and can be understood by all, regardless of their knowledge of or faith in God. I really don't see yet where you and I have any real disagreement on this issue.

It's a great tool for the use of running a society or earthly kingdom, even a theocracy, but it is inadequate and misused in the context of the OP and the linked article.

I see your point. This question of what good works are is a side point. So to address the issue of the OP, I will say this:

The 3-page essay by Todd Wilken in the linked article makes a good case. It does seem to offer a valid interpretation of what Paul is writing. The only reason I went on this side topic in the first place was to clarify what Bonnie might have meant by "works righteous groups".

 

[BJ Bear]

It is not questioning anything God said.

If you think it is not questioning what God has said and done then at best that is a misunderstanding of what God has said and done for all men. You previously wrote in post #7:

"The point in one's life at which one finds out for sure if they are saved is after death. Before that, one can hope they are saved, or think they are saved, but how would they know for sure?"

That is not the way Scripture speaks of the objective true good news of Jesus Christ to and for all men. There are no subjunctives or conditionals in the gospel of Jesus Christ for you. The Savior saves you, the passive object.

For a person to imagine subjunctives or conditionals in the Savior saves you, the passive object, he must first deny that the gospel of Jesus Christ is objective true good news for all men.

The "sure knowledge" that God has given is in terms of general statements in the form of "if A is true then B is true".

That is again false and denies the objective true good news of the incarnate, crucified, and risen LORD for all men.

He has not given anyone sure knowledge of their own salvation.

That is not a he way Scripture speaks. Faith is evidential according to Scripture and most of history.

People can deduce that they individually are saved by assuming they qualify for the general statements from God. But people's deductions can be flawed. It is because of Man's weakness in making sure deductions that the conclusions so reached are not as certain as the statements given by God.

According to the witness of Scripture it is axiomatic that the Savior saves.

That is only true when one places his own reason above Scripture. When that happens it is usually because of is flawed reasoning. But God is rational. Reason that comes from God does not contradict scripture. Just as you narrowly defined "good works" above, I am narrowly defining "reason" so as to exclude a man's faulty reason and only regarding "true" reason.

The reason from God, Christ for all men, doesn't bring uncertainty with regard to salvation. The Savior saves.

 

[Bonnie]

Hi BJ....we can be sure we are saved because Jesus, as God, always keeps His promises. And He has promised eternal life for those who put their faith and trust in Him only for salvation, great and free. There is nothing more sure than God and His promises!

 

[LifeIn]

If you think it is not questioning what God has said and done then at best that is a misunderstanding of what God has said and done for all men. You previously wrote in post #7:

"The point in one's life at which one finds out for sure if they are saved is after death. Before that, one can hope they are saved, or think they are saved, but how would they know for sure?"

That is not the way Scripture speaks of the objective true good news of Jesus Christ to and for all men. There are no subjunctives or conditionals in the gospel of Jesus Christ for you. The Savior saves you, the passive object.

For a person to imagine subjunctives or conditionals in the Savior saves you, the passive object, he must first deny that the gospel of Jesus Christ is objective true good news for all men.

It sounds like you are saying that all men will be saved, and I know you don't mean that. If the gospel message is good news for all men that means either all men will be saved or all men can be saved. It is certainly not good news for those men who will not and can never be saved. Of course the way out of this problem is to allow that all men can be saved, depending on whether they choose to believe in the Christ. That way the gospel message is still good news for all men and we don't have to assume that all men will be saved. And it is still consistent with the Pauline writings that salvation is only through faith.

The subjunctive or conditionals then do not lie with the Savior who saves you, but with you yourself - not in terms of what you can accomplish by your own power, but in terms of what God has promised to do for you if you have faith. The conditional is the very one that Paul wrote about - having faith.

In that sense, the "sure knowledge" exists only to extent that one is sure that one has the faith Paul writes about. I would guess that some people think they have this "sure knowledge" of their faith, but do not. Vladimir Putin comes to mind. He may think he has faith, but his personal assessment is subjective, not objective.

 

[BJ Bear]

Well, I waited two days for you to finish, but in case you don't get around to saying more, I will reply now.

Thanks.

The two questions were "Can an unsaved person do good works" and "Can a saved person fail to do good works". In the context of justification before God, works are not good if they do not flow from justification by faith. But tell that to the beneficiary of the good works. Take the Dickens story A Christmas Carol. (Talking about fictitious characters makes it easier to distill the point being made.) In that story, Scrooge ends up doing good works for his employee and his ailing son. But we know nothing about Scrooge's ultimate acceptance of Jesus Christ as his Lord and Savior. We can easily imagine that he ended up being essentially a secular humanist - with feelings toward humanity, but paid no attention to faith in Jesus. Is that so hard to imagine? In that case, what are we to call the works done by the reformed Scrooge? Are they good works? Or merely "works". I think Bob Cratchit and his whole family would all them good.

Yes, I think with your conclusion regarding the the thought of the Cratchits is probable. God's measure is demonstrably different than that of the Cratchits.

I never said good works is a means of justification before God. I just said we can call the works good in the human sense. This does not means that the person doing those works is good. As Jesus says, "If you then, though you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give the Holy Spirit to those who ask him!” He is acknowledging that evil people can do good works for their children. The good works by no means excuse the evil they do.

Thanks, we agree. The reason I continue to comment is that there are Christian groups, and also the cults, that try to make the law work as a means of salvation or assurance. It is categorically excluded from such a role.

That others misused the concept of good works to prove justification does not mean I am misusing it. I am not claiming any kind of justification - "distributed" or otherwise. I am simply saying that in the common parlance, good works, in the human sense, exist and can be understood by all, regardless of their knowledge of or faith in God. I really don't see yet where you and I have any real disagreement on this issue.

Ok, it seems to me that our disagreement is regarding salvation and assurance. In contrast to those who try to find salvation and/or assurance through their works, your view appears to be that one can't know, and we say we have salvation and assurance in Christ apart from our works.

I see your point. This question of what good works are is a side point. So to address the issue of the OP, I will say this:

The 3-page essay by Todd Wilken in the linked article makes a good case. It does seem to offer a valid interpretation of what Paul is writing. The only reason I went on this side topic in the first place was to clarify what Bonnie might have meant by "works righteous groups".

Ok. I am not Bonnie, but historically the bone of contention between us and Rome, the Reformed (A catch all phrase for us of various Christian groups.), and others has been the person and work of Christ to and for all men. Historically, works righteous groups are those who try to make the law work as a means of salvation or assurance.

To paraphrase Luther in the Bondage Of The Will to specifically address the topic, Jesus said He is the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father but by Him. Since our works are not Jesus they are neither the way, the truth, and the life, therefore, no one comes to the Father by them.

 

[BJ Bear]

It sounds like you are saying that all men will be saved, and I know you don't mean that.

That would be a possible conclusion if a person tries to make the law work as a means of salvation.

If the gospel message is good news for all men that means either all men will be saved or all men can be saved.

It means that God is the atoning sacrifice for the sins of the world.

It is certainly not good news for those men who will not and can never be saved.

How so? Will the not faith of some nullify the faith of God?

Of course the way out of this problem is to allow that all men can be saved, depending on whether they choose to believe in the Christ.

That may be the way out for those who are trying to make the law work as a means of salvation, but it has no right basis in Scripture.

That way the gospel message is still good news for all men and we don't have to assume that all men will be saved. And it is still consistent with the Pauline writings that salvation is only through faith.

The two word pairs are grace and faith, and law and works. The first two are gifts of God to and for all men in Christ, the good news. The second two are apart from grace and faith.

The subjunctive or conditionals then do not lie with the Savior who saves you, but with you yourself - not in terms of what you can accomplish by your own power, but in terms of what God has promised to do for you if you have faith. The conditional is the very one that Paul wrote about - having faith.

There is no subjunctive or conditional in God giving all men faith by raising Him from the dead. “30. And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent: 31. Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance [pistls, faith] unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.” (Act 17:30-31, KJVA)

In that sense, the "sure knowledge" exists only to extent that one is sure that one has the faith Paul writes about. I would guess that some people think they have this "sure knowledge" of their faith, but do not. Vladimir Putin comes to mind. He may think he has faith, but his personal assessment is subjective, not objective.

The sense in which you write doesn't accurately reflect what Scripture says and means according to the immediate context in which it was given.

The incarnate, crucified, and risen LORD to and for all men is the faith.

 

[BJ Bear]

Hi BJ....we can be sure we are saved because Jesus, as God, always keeps His promises. And He has promised eternal life for those who put their faith and trust in Him only for salvation, great and free. There is nothing more sure than God and His promises!

Hi Bonnie! Just to add a historical curiosity, the LXX translated, "his faith," in Habbakuk 2:4 as, "My faith." It is in the same vein as Malachi, "I will send my messenger before Me," and Jesus saying, "before Him," in the gospel.

 

[Bonnie]

There are many many things that are certain. But it is irrational to be certain about everything. Sometimes uncertainty is appropriate.

We can be certain of Jesus Christ and His promise that those who believe in Him will not come into judgment, but have eternal life in His Name.

 

[LifeIn]

We can be certain of Jesus Christ and His promise that those who believe in Him will not come into judgment, but have eternal life in His Name.

Agreed. That is one of the things that would fall under the category of "things that are certain".

 

[dberrie2020]

We can be certain of Jesus Christ and His promise that those who believe in Him will not come into judgment, but have eternal life in His Name.

"Judgment"--as far as condemnation goes--yes.

Judgment--as far as judging all according to their works--please explain:

John 5:28-29----King James Version (KJV)
28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

2 Corinthians 5:10---King James Version (KJV)
10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad.

1 Peter 1:16-17---King James Version (KJV)
16 Because it is written, Be ye holy; for I am holy.
17 And if ye call on the Father, who without respect of persons judgeth according to every man's work, pass the time of your sojourning here in fear:

Romans 2:5-11----King James Version (KJV)
5 But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.

Matthew 16:27---King James Version
27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.