This is another error on your part. θεός can refer to any number of entities/people with or without the article. This is clear from many passages like Philippians 3:19, for example, where the phrase is used to refer to an abdomen: ὧν τὸ τέλος ἀπώλεια, ὧν ὁ θεὸς ἡ κοιλία καὶ ἡ δόξα ἐν τῇ αἰσχύνῃ αὐτῶν, οἱ τὰ ἐπίγεια φρονοῦντες.ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων Θεὸς = ὁ .... Θεὸς can only denote the Father, per John 1:1b.
In the text you quoted above, didn't Hippolytus refer to Jesus using this phrase?So Hippolytus used this clause to refer to the Father, a long time prior to the arrival of the hardcore Trinitarans and pseudo-Sabellians post Nicea.
Never fear. I'm still ripping you a new one.You've got nothing to say except to still critique me? It's you who's give up.