Obviously there is a disagreement. So who has the authority to settle the issue?yes:
Was not our ancestor Abraham VINDICATED by works when he offered his son Isaac on the altar?"
Why not just except the view of the early Church and agree James 2:21 is talking about vindication/proved?
"the Greek language had no other word that meant vindication in the present tense"
Cyril of Alexandria, a native Greek speaker, on the issue of the meaning of the term edikaiōthē (translated “justified” in Ancient Christian Commentary on the Scripture, New Testament VI), clearly explains that he believes that it refers to vindication, and not literal justification:
Clement, who writes at a time contemporaneous enough with James’ to have a thorough understanding of edikaiōthē and the doctrine of the Apostles that is surrounding it. Citing James 2:23, and likely having the whole section in mind when exegeting Hebrews 11, he writes that Abraham proved his faithfulness in the performance faithful acts:
Not only does Clement endorse the view that Abraham was vindicated by his sacrifice of Isaac, as he was found faithful in our sight because of it, he linguistically uses the term “justified” to mean “vindicated” elsewhere in the letter.Cyprian of Carthage writes:
“men are tried by God for this purpose, that they may be proved.”
A later Latin writer, Hilary of Poitiers,
Abraham had proved, by the sacrifice of his son,