What happened to Matthew 18:11 in the ESV ?

#1. Who "MADE ALL THINGS?" was it the "LORD", all caps, (the Father) or the "Lord" (Son) if they are supposed to be separate persons.

If you don't know the answer to questions like this, then maybe you should lose the attitude and stop presuming to "lecture" me. Just sayin'.

Like I already explained to you, I'm not interested in answering questions from heretics.

If you can't prove your opinions without asking questions, then you can't prove your opinions. It's as simple as that.

#2. is the Lord Jesus the Christ the one of the "US" and or "OUR" in Genesis 1:26 who made man male and female, yes or no?.

Again, I don't answer questions from heretics.
If you don't know the answer, then you have no business "lecturing" me.
So you need to lose the attitude.

this should get us off to a good discussion to see if I'm a heretic or not.

I'm not particularly interested in wasting my time "discussing" anything with you, especially since you are incapable of supporting your false claims, and unwilling to accept correction.
 
If you don't know the answer to questions like this, then maybe you should lose the attitude and stop presuming to "lecture" me. Just sayin'.

Like I already explained to you, I'm not interested in answering questions from heretics.

If you can't prove your opinions without asking questions, then you can't prove your opinions. It's as simple as that.
so, you don't know, and scared to answer? maybe the TRUTH will come out? ....... :eek: YIKES!
Again, I don't answer questions from heretics.
see above
I'm not particularly interested in wasting my time "discussing" anything with you,
that's what I/ thought.... u are dismissed.

:ninja:
 
#1. Who "MADE ALL THINGS?" was it the "LORD", all caps, (the Father) or the "Lord" (Son) if they are supposed to be separate persons.

#2. is the Lord Jesus the Christ the one of the "US" and or "OUR" in Genesis 1:26 who made man male and female, yes or no?.

this should get us off to a good discussion to see if I'm a heretic or not.

your answer please.

:ninja:
I don't know if you area heretic, but on this site, often those who disagree are labeled that way
 
from the Wikipidea article on Missing Verses"

(2) Matthew 18:11​

KJV: For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost.

Reason: This verse is lacking in א,B,L (original handwriting), θ, ƒ1, ƒ13, some old Italic & Syriac & Coptic & Georgian mss, and such ancient sources as the Apostolic Canons, Eusebius, Jerome, and others. It is found in some other sources, not quite so ancient, such as D,K,W,X, and the Latin Vulgate. It is not found in any manuscript before the 5th century. According to Bruce Metzger, "There can be little doubt that the words ... are spurious here, being omitted by the earliest witnesses representing several textual types... [This verse was] manifestly borrowed by copyists from Luke 19:10."
 
Of course modern Critics using dynamic equivalence destroys and butchers words, whole verses, removes words using minority texts and W&H slop and presto nothing means nothing.

So if a book was written in English and contained the phrase, "it was raining buckets", or "it was raining cats and dogs", and it was to be translated into Japanese, you would want a literal translation, so that nobody would understand the idiom?
 
So if a book was written in English and contained the phrase, "it was raining buckets", or "it was raining cats and dogs", and it was to be translated into Japanese, you would want a literal translation, so that nobody would understand the idiom?
Both ideas have their place. A word for word translation that does not try to unravel smbolic langage into modern language is wonderful. But I would not condemn the translater who wants to explain the idioms by translating the idea instead of the words that build the idea.
 
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