Stella1000
Well-known member
Can you cite a doctrine that gives this statement some meaning? What does it mean that Christs death was sufficient for the non 'elect'?BECAUSE even though Christ's death was sufficient for all it was only effective for the Elect
AKA specific atonement:
If propitiation means to appease God's wrath,
and if people who end up in Hell are under God's wrath;
then propitiation was not made for those who will end up in Hell
or just claim it is because of man's free will and never think about it again