Who Faked the World’s Oldest Bible?

[Steven Avery]

I said it's on page 273 in the work Daniels cited.
Can you not read plain English?

Nothing about St. Catherine's.
Not even Sinai.

David is right, you are wrong.

Did you have reading difficulties?

 

[Steven Avery]

David Daniels:
If you have a Bible that is not the King James and published after 1880, then it is likely that there are changes in the text that ultimately come from the Sinaiticus. (page 4)

Given the fact we are talking about readings SOLELY in Sinaiticus....the fact pc is MORE THAN ONE MANUSCRIPT here actually PROVES MY POINT!

"SOLELY in Sinaiticus" was YOUR errant phrase, not David.

You tried to apply it, wrongly, to the two Jonathan Borland verses.

 

[Steven Avery]

It only makes sense in an ancient scriptoreum. No one could make up that Text. Nothing else like it on this planet now exists. Certainly in the 2nd/3rd/4th century their was its exemplar. Your made up fantasy denial is just more of your rejection of the word of God.

It is a hybrid text.
E.g. Tobit has a section that is from Greek sources, and also sections from other languages.

That was possible in the 1800s with a wide variety of sources available.
It is not really explainable in the 4th century.

Also you have Sinaiticus correctors connected to specific medieval manuscripts.
There is no good explanation for that phenomenon except that the manuscripts were used to correct Sinaiticus.

 

[Conan]

That was possible in the 1800s with a wide variety of sources available.
It is not really explainable in the 4th century.

Nope. No one could have made up that Text. It's Text goes back to the 1st, 2nd, probably 3rd centuries and definitely 4th century.

NT Manuscripts - Uncials

Also you have Sinaiticus correctors connected to specific medieval manuscripts.
There is no good explanation for that phenomenon except that the manuscripts were used to correct Sinaiticus.

Throughout history later scribes corrected its text towards the Byzantine Text. Multiple scribes in ancient hands keep on and on making corrections to the Byzantine Text. Of course Byzantine manuscripts agree with medieval Greek manuscripts. They are Byzantine manuscripts, written by byzantine scribes. What is so hard to understand about that?

NT Manuscripts - Uncials

 

[Unbound68]

Nope. No one could have made up that Text. It's Text goes back to the 1st, 2nd, probably 3rd centuries and definitely 4th century.

NT Manuscripts - Uncials

Throughout history later scribes corrected its text towards the Byzantine Text. Multiple scribes in ancient hands keep on and on making corrections to the Byzantine Text. Of course Byzantine manuscripts agree with medieval Greek manuscripts. They are Byzantine manuscripts, written by byzantine scribes. What is so hard to understand about that?

NT Manuscripts - Uncials

You have to keep in mind that Avery’s position on Sinaiticus calls into question the authenticity of every other biblical manuscript in existence.

Everything could have been copied or forged by hands centuries later than the officially accepted dates.

Everything.

 

[Steven Avery]

Throughout history later scribes corrected its text towards the Byzantine Text. Multiple scribes in ancient hands keep on and on making corrections to the Byzantine Text. Of course Byzantine manuscripts agree with medieval Greek manuscripts. They are Byzantine manuscripts, written by byzantine scribes. What is so hard to understand about that?

1) You would have to look at the specific variants and how the manuscript and correctors are connected.

2) Your theory would only even have a potential application for New Testament books, not the OT, apocrypha, or Hermas and Barnabas.

 

[Conan]

1) You would have to look at the specific variants and how the manuscript and correctors are connected.

That would be the Byzantine Text. You know, 85-95% of all manuscripts.

2) Your theory would only even have a potential application for New Testament books, not the OT, apocrypha, or Hermas and Barnabas.

Why? Did all those Byzantine revisors revise the Old Covenant/Apocrapha of Sinaiticus with a non-Byzantine Text?

 

[Maestroh]

1) You would have to look at the specific variants and how the manuscript and correctors are connected.

2) Your theory would only even have a potential application for New Testament books, not the OT, apocrypha, or Hermas and Barnabas.

I love it when a person who cannot even read the Greek NT for himself and has never even taken an elementary course in Textual Criticism can tell THOSE OF US WHO HAVE DONE THIS AND COLLATED ACTUAL MANUSCRIPTS how it works. I'm amazed anyone was able to ever do any work until this enlightened (by which I mean "ignorant") musing was posted online.

Ha. Ha. Ha.