Scripture doesn't clearly state your doctrine: we have been imputed with the righteousness of Christ, a one time imputed righteousness at the time of conversion and it is this righteousness that we stand before God on.
I have a hard time accepting it when it is not explicitly stated in scripture and it is not even mentioned in the writings of John, Peter, James, Jude or the writer of Hebrews.
Also, as another example we read through Peter's letters:
I Peter 4:17-18, "For the time has come for judgment to begin with the household of God; if it begins with us, what will be the end for those who do not obey the gospel of God? And “If it is hard for the righteous to be saved, what will become of the ungodly and the sinners?”
II Peter 3:11-12, "Since all these things are to be dissolved in this way, what sort of persons ought you to be in leading lives of holiness and godliness, waiting for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be set ablaze and dissolved, and the elements will melt with fire?"
I ask myself why Peter didn't say anything about being imputed with the righteousness of Christ? Why didn't he say, "yes, be we don't need to worry about any of these things because we have been imputed with the righteousness of Christ. He didn't say that and if it were true Peter would have made reference to it.
I note your bolded part. So, you won't believe anything that isn't explicitly stated in the Bible? Why then, do you believe the following:
1. Praying to saints dead in the Lord--nowhere did Jesus or the apostles say "you should pray to saints dead in Jesus Christ for help and succor and salavation."
2. The 4 Marian dogmas--nowhere does the Bible state that Mary remained a virgin the rest of her life, had no other children (the opposite is actually true), was crowned queen of heaven, and was taken bodily up to heaven.
3. Purgatory--nowhere does the Bible say that believers must spend some time in Purgatory after death to be "purged" of any sin they have left in them, before going to heaven.
4. celibate, unmarried clergy (in fact, the NT teaches the opposite)--nowhere does the NT say the church has a formal priesthood--just the priesthood of all believers--nor does it say that "elders and bishops should be unmarried and remain celibate." In fact, it states just the opposite! They should be the "husbands of one wife"!
5. Popes as head of the church--nowhere does the NT say there is one man as the head of the church and he should be the pope--Matthew 16 doesn't say that, either. ALL the apostles were leaders in the church. No one man was singled out as the leader of all the church.
6. Indulgences. NOWHERE in the Bible is there even a hint at this gross doctrine! NOWHERE. Yet, you believe what your church teaches about indulgences, don't you?
NONE of these things is explicitly stated in the Bible, or even IMplicitly stated. NOT even a hint. Yet--you believe all of these things, don't you?
Can we say "double standard"? Yes, we can....
Oh, yes, the Trinity doctrine is not explicit in the Bible, but implicit....yet you believe in the Triune Godhead, do you not? As do I? But the above doctrines I enumerated are nowhere even hinted at in the Bible! And yet, the Bible DOES say SOMETHING is imputed/credited to us as righteousness, in Romans 4, that was also credited/imputed to Abraham--what did Paul say that was, ding?
"5 However, to the one who does not work but trusts God who justifies the ungodly, their
FAITH is credited as righteousness."
What is it Paul says is credited to us as righteousness, ding? Care to finally take off your RCC glasses and read what this verse actually says?
