Really? Because trinitarians worship 3 persons, 3 masters.
The definition of the trinity is not 3 gods in three persons.
That's not true, because Jesus said to pray exclusively to the Father.
Exclusively to the Father? Not true, John 14:14.
Tell me what I didn't answer.
I did in the following sentence.
God doesn't unite with flesh, Daniel 2:11.
That's what the Babylonian seers said, who didn't know Yahweh. Who lived before Christ. And who also didn't know Genesis 3:8 "They heard the sound of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and the man and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God among the trees of the garden."
But the Priest wasn't an atonement himself for the people. That's my point.
I know. We hadn't settled your argument that the Christian perspective is that sacrifices of atonement are only offered by the one who sinned, and in the context we were talking about it was specifically God being referenced.
Do you concede that that's not the case? If so, then we can move on to talk about the priest himself as atonement for the people.
How little you understand me.
You're the one who made the argument that, "Many don't pay their debt, so Jesus' sacrifice would fall short here."
From a Christian perspective, Jesus is God, so let's reword what you said so that it becomes an argument against Christianity.
'Many don't pay their debt, so God's sacrifice would fall short here.' God, unable to pay a debt? That seems like a devaluing of God that both of us would reject.
Why? Because you don't have a defense for it?
Nope. I already told you why a while ago. It's spurious because the meaning is not only difficult to understand in the Hebrew (not my words but Jewish scholars), it's different from the LXX, and also because your own Jewish scholars say so. I would get the quote, but it's 2:42 AM and I don't feel like going back to the office in a blizzard to get it.
You misunderstood. Daniel doesn't mention prayers substituting for sacrifices, but Hosea does. Daniel knew this and is the reason he prayed 3 times as he did.
Then I didn't misunderstand. We can move on.
48 and if they turn back to you with all their heart and soul in the land of their enemies who took them captive, and pray to you toward the land you gave their fathers, toward the city you have chosen
and the temple I have built for your Name;
The temple is still standing in Solomon's prayer, unlike today.
V5 deals with punishment for sin. V10 deals with the same issue. Sometimes we give up our life as a result.
I get the feeling that I'm not 100% certain that I understand your position.
Are "transgressions" and "iniquities" in V5 covered in asham sacrifices (V10)?
You said that "V10 deals with the same issue", but I feel like you see V5 is different in some way, and I'm not sure how.
The law applies to specific situations. Electricity has been considered as fire by the Rabbis. So, yes, I can see where both the letter and spirit would be kept.
So, is it wrong to talk about laws as being kept by individuals because they keep the spirit of the law?
Bring him up, not sacrifice him. God says later specifically not to hurt him.
If I understand correctly, the word you translate as "bring him up" is the same word used in V7
Genesis 22:7 Isaac spoke to Abraham his father and said, "My father!" And he said, "Here I am, my son." And he said, "Behold, the fire and the wood, but where is the lamb for ________________________?" How would you fill in the blank?
It's the same word in verse 13.
One reconciles the meaning of the other.
I think it reconciles, not the meaning, but the theology that God would never accept Jesus as a sacrifice for sins. There isn't an issue with God telling Abraham to sacrifice Isaac and then tell him to stop later on. On a literary level it makes sense, the meaning of the verses not only are clear but do not contradict.
It only causes problems when you say, "Wait, God wouldn't say that."
Human sacrifice would require an altar which isn't even discussed here, let alone the idea of asham which is for unknown sins or misuse of holy objects, which require monetary compensation.
Either way, all sins wouldn't be covered.
According to your view, no it wouldn't require an altar because there is no law regarding a human sacrifice. How can you have a requirement for a law that doesn't exist?
Also, Isaiah 53's sacrifices cover over more than just unknown sins or misuse of holy objects as it also covers transgressions in V5, which is the same word used in Leviticus 16:21 to deal with the sins of Israel on the day of atonement.
Ezekiel 18 was dealing with the false claim that a person's sin will automatically affect their children and not them (verse 2).
This is different than saying that the punishment for a sin can be transferred to another (hence the whole sacrificial system).
He offered to take on the punishment but God rejected it. Just like the idea behind Isaac.
I get that God rejected it, but was it a sin?
Yep, still a gentile thing.
So... you acknowledge our bias against Jesus specifically in the idea of "kinds" in Scripture?