Why is Yeshua not called Emmanuel?

Stephen

Active member
Why? Because the literal prophecy in Isaiah was fulfilled a few years later and is about a child named Emmanuel. Christ is a type of that sign child and not the literal fulfillment of the prophecy.

This is consistent with Matthew's usage of types in the first two chapters of the book. For example Jesus is said to fulfill the prophecy of Hosea 11:1, "out of Egypt I have called my son" in Matthew 2:15, but the literal fulfillment is Israel and Jesus is the typical fulfillment.
 

Dant01

Member
.
Names aren't always monikers, sometimes they're a characterization: defined as a
description of the distinctive nature or features of someone or something.

Take for example the Russian czar Ivan The Terrible. That wasn't Ivan IV
Vasilyevich's name given at birth. In other words he became known as terrible (and
also fearsome and formidable).

Though Jesus wasn't given a specific name that means "God with us" he became
known that way, in other words: characterized. For example Luke 7:16-17

"And fear gripped them all, and they began glorifying God, saying, "A great prophet
has arisen among us!" and, "God has visited His people!" And this report
concerning him went out all over Judea, and in all the surrounding district."

And also Luke 1:68, which is directly related to Matt 1:21

"Blessed be the Lord God of Israel, for He has visited us and accomplished
redemption for His people"
_
 

Gary Mac

Member
.
Names aren't always monikers, sometimes they're a characterization: defined as a
description of the distinctive nature or features of someone or something.

Take for example the Russian czar Ivan The Terrible. That wasn't Ivan IV
Vasilyevich's name given at birth. In other words he became known as terrible (and
also fearsome and formidable).

Though Jesus wasn't given a specific name that means "God with us" he became
known that way, in other words: characterized. For example Luke 7:16-17

"And fear gripped them all, and they began glorifying God, saying, "A great prophet
has arisen among us!" and, "God has visited His people!" And this report
concerning him went out all over Judea, and in all the surrounding district."

And also Luke 1:68, which is directly related to Matt 1:21

"Blessed be the Lord God of Israel, for He has visited us and accomplished
redemption for His people"
_
He visited Jesus in Matt 3:16 when He opend all of heaven to that man just as He did in Adam, Abraham, Moses, Mary, 120 and He has visited us all today who He is manifest in as He was in all of these.
 

Stephen

Active member
Sounds reasonable; where in the scriptures will I find this event?

As Isaiah says, before the child "Emmanuel" would know how to choose the good and refuse evil as a sign to King Ahaz (Isaiah 7:14) , the two kings which he dreaded, Rezin and Pekah (Isaiah 7:1) would be deserted, which was fulfilled (2 Kings 16:9 and 2 Kings 15:30).

The prophecy was literally fulfilled approximately 732 BC. Christ is a typical fulfillment to that prophecy, he also was a sign child.
 
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