This seems like a very bizarre and empty thread. I'm not sure what you're asking for. You give the title:
"Why no attention to the horrible translation of the NIV and others yet crickets ?"
Well, let's see....
1) This is the "KJV-Only" forum, NOT the "NIV" forum. So why would you expect an OFF-TOPIC discussion?
2) You refer to the alleged "horrible translation of the NIV", yet fail to give any EXAMPLES of these imaginary "horrible translations". How can we "discuss" something that doesn't exist?
(Btw, this is a standard tactic by people who can't defend their own position, you try to attack another's position. You can't defend the KJV, so you try to attack the NIV instead. Attacking another translation is not a valid "defense" of the KJV, especially when your "attack" is bankrupt in the first place.)
3) To refer to something as a "horrible translation", one must first have a standard text in mind to compare as to what is "correct". And this begs the question. I'm guessing that you're going to appeal to the "Textus Receptus". However, not only are their MULTIPLE different TR's available, NONE of them are manuscripts, they are published texts.
4) Another requirement needed to judge a "translation", is knowledge of the source and target languages. I'm unfamiliar with any alleged "expertise" on your part in Biblical Hebrew and Greek. I however can read Koine Greek. If you can't read the Biblical languages, then I'm not sure how you can warrant an opinion on this topic.
Okay, so now having laid down that ground work, let's look at a Biblical rendering involving the KJV and NIV:
1John 3:1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.
1John 3:1 See what kind of love the Father has given to us, that we should be called children of God; and so we are. The reason why the world does not know us is that it did not know him.
In this particular verse, the KJV DELETED the phrase, "and so we are". For whatever reason, the KJV translators wanted to DENY that we are ACTUALLY "children of God". Therefore we can see that the KJV is hopelessly EVIL and CORRUPT!
(That's how a KJV-Only person thinks and reacts, falsely attributing evil and malice into any difference of text, no matter how sincere the text is. So I would say that not only is the KJV one of the least accurate Bible translations, but their advocates are not true Christians, not knowing the first thing about Christian CHARITY.)
So to figure out which rendering (the KJV or NIV) is accurate, let's look to the manuscript evidence:
So according to the extant manuscript evidence, the KJV reading didn't even show up until the 8th century! Now we see why it's so important for KJV-only's to try to demonize early codices such as Sinaticus and Vaticanus.
But here's the the thing... We don't have to mirror the demonic attitude of KJV-only's by trying to project evil motives for the variant. There is a very EASY and REASONABLE explanation why the phrase went missing in latter manuscripts:
We have two verbs here which end in the 3rd person plural ending, "MEN". The omission is almost certainly due to a reading error by the scribe ending his view with the first "MEN" ("ΚΛΗΘΜΕΝ"), and then when he went back to the manuscript, his eyes were looking for the "MEN" ending, and found the second instance ("ΚΑΙΕΣΜΕΝ"), and inadvertently skipped over the phrase.
So why did the KJV get it wrong?
Btw, it's an undeniable fact that if the KJV translators had all the manuscripts we have today, we wouldn't have the KJV today.