wof and living 120 years

tbeachhead

Well-known member
Paul seems very confused here: “[He will give] eternal life to those who by patient continuance in doing good seek for glory, honor, and immortality;” Immortality. There is no death in immortality. Who has been taught to seek it?
 

BlessedAnomaly

Well-known member
it says it in Hebrews. I quoted the passage in response to Ted’s “brutal punch.”
The New Testament describes the New Covenant, it is not the New Covenant. Hebrews speaks of Covenants. The Old Covenant was all explained and set in motion in Genesis. The Old Testament is not the Old Covenant. A Covenant is an agreement -- it is not a set of written books describing a history or setting forth doctrines.

Like you I decided to respond. You decided to punch. Until this thread I had not noticed what you pointed out in the NET translation that God was giving them 120 years and then kaput. Like most, I thought God was limiting man’s lifespan. The NET translators made an interesting choice.
Well, the NET translators know the Greek far, far better than you and I ever will. So if you find it interesting, you should likely get in line with it instead of making your own adjustments. Now, if you can find other Greek scholars who disagree, I'm sure there can be a discussion ... between the Greek scholars, not one who calls up BibleHub.

You can check it out. The Greek living is present progressive participial. The one who is living who believes will not [possibly] ever die. (Greek emphatic double negative).
The present progressive participial does not allow for "possibly." It simply is.

Isn’t it funny that the NET translators made this choice?
What's funny is that you think you know Greek better than or equal to what they do. That has me rolling on the floor.

Now you have changed Ted’s OP. If you don’t say anything he probably won’t notice.

TED -- when you wrote the title for this thread did you have any bible verses in mind? And did you think that your topic should include "living forever physically"?

Pete, let's see if he notices the questions and we'll let him tell us what he was referencing. Oh, and for the record, I changed nothing. I kept my part of the discussion to the 120 years, answering and/or rebuking your comments that either misread the verse in the bible that deals with (read it) "120 years," or that added topics that this thread wasn't even about. Not that we all don't do this all the time -- bunny trails do take off from just about every discussion. But yours simply didn't seem like a bunny trail, therefore I'm a little pointed about it.
 

BlessedAnomaly

Well-known member
Here’s a respectful observation. Up to this point, each post was in the context of Ted’s OP. Why did you switch it to Genesis 6 (which you have proven is out of context when you accept the interpretation of the NET translators) and Pete?
Huh?? Genesis 6 (verse 3) is the place where 120 years is given to man by God. It was the length of time before man would be wiped.

WoF teachers speak of living 120 years, as if man was given this timeframe by God. They get this idea from Genesis 6:3. I've heard many of them preach this. As Ted said in this thread: there are no WoF teachers that are known to have lived 120 years -- just what do you think Ted is talking about?

Up to then we were talking about the expectations preachers have had. From Ted’s OP: “Can you show us any wofer whose (sic) lived that long?”. I mentioned the legend that involves John, and one WoF preacher’s sermon “I Don’t Know.”
This latter was the moment *you* changed the subject, throwing in "your friend" (not identified as a WoF teacher). At the same time (about 1/2 hour later) I posted my response to the OP, which directly quoted Genesis 6. To this post, Ted agreed -- and I quote: "Agreed." -- and commented on the misplaced idea that WoF have that this means a 120 year lifespan. You also replied to my post and called it manure. And off to the races we went.

Pete. Don't try to rewrite history. It is recorded above for all of posterity.
 

Tallen

Well-known member
TED -- when you wrote the title for this thread did you have any bible verses in mind?
Yes, my OP was based upon KC's claim and his misuse of Genesis 6:3.

And did you think that your topic should include "living forever physically"?
Nope, never thought of that. Just the wof claim of living for 120 years... just like Copeland claimed. He isn't thinking of living forever, BTW. He is "faithing" for 120 based on his view of Genesis.

Looking at his rate of aging, his trying to hide it, I sure he isn't going to make it. His jet is plunging down to the earth and he will be six feet under before long. 😉
 

tbeachhead

Well-known member
Can’t tell you how grieved I am for you. Responding used to be like responding to a friend. Now you’re so riddled with spite and derision, there is no reward. Notwithstanding, I will respond to your presumption and error, because you do not deliberately err. Your pride causes you too spew.
The New Testament describes the New Covenant, it is not the New Covenant. Hebrews speaks of Covenants. The Old Covenant was all explained and set in motion in Genesis. The Old Testament is not the Old Covenant. A Covenant is an agreement -- it is not a set of written books describing a history or setting forth doctrines.
Testament is an ecclesiastical term. Covenant and testament are practically synonymous.


Well, the NET translators know the Greek far, far better than you and I ever will. So if you find it interesting, you should likely get in line with it instead of making your own adjustments. Now, if you can find other Greek scholars who disagree, I'm sure there can be a discussion ... between the Greek scholars, not one who calls up BibleHub.
Only we’re talking Hebrew not Greek. Genesis was written in Hebrew. The NET translation differs from that of the many other translations, and interprets the Hebrew to be speaking of imminent demise and not lifespan. Translators are often forced to interpret passages and make choices. Students are wise to read as many translations as they can to see how subtle differences arise. They are wise to delve into the original languages to learn why they arise.

Since I’ve only studied ten languages formally, with merely grad school level koine Greek, I don’t pretend to compete with translators. However, as a forty-year practicant of applied linguistics, fluent enough in French to be employed as translator and used often as interpreter, I know something of the intricacies of translation. Since I’ve only been studying koine since 1985, I still use tools to parse some verb forms. I rarely need to go back to my grammar books to define the meaning of those forms.

(That being said, for Semitic languages, I studied the modern Arabic of the Levant in Nazareth. Not Hebrew. I rely heavily on other OT scholars and their scholarship, and cite them in my opinions. I was friends with the late John Rae who was on the committee that translated the first issue of the NASB. My observation on the NET translators choices for Genesis 6 is based only on comparison with other translators’ choices.)

The present progressive participial does not allow for "possibly." It simply is.
You misunderstood what I said. Living is zoon in Greek. That is progressive. The believing person, being alive…
The word “never” is translated from a Greek double negative, ou me. This is emphatic negative. …will not possibly ever…Not Bible Hub translation. Just Greek grammar. Bible hub is great for putting the Greek at your fingertips. You still need to know some.

What's funny is that you think you know Greek better than or equal to what they do. That has me rolling on the floor.
Hope you don’t injure yourself. Your English isn’t really all that good. Is it? Why am I explaining the same thing to you twice? I know enough Greek to see through the egregious NIV translators’ errors. I’m confident enough to see many of the the choices and sometimes to make them, or comment on them. I’ve enjoyed watching Ted go after a friend whose native language is Greek, who has used the koine Bible in church since his youth, telling him the English speaking “scholars” knew more about Greek than the Greek speaker.

Arrogance on display…with ignorance.

TED -- when you wrote the title for this thread did you have any bible verses in mind? And did you think that your topic should include "living forever physically"?

Pete, let's see if he notices the questions and we'll let him tell us what he was referencing. Oh, and for the record, I changed nothing. I kept my part of the discussion to the 120 years, answering and/or rebuking your comments that either misread the verse in the bible that deals with (read it) "120 years," or that added topics that this thread wasn't even about. Not that we all don't do this all the time -- bunny trails do take off from just about every discussion. But yours simply didn't seem like a bunny trail, therefore I'm a little pointed about it.
He’s writing about Copeland. I’m thinking he’ll be as intrigued as I with the NET’s interpretation. I think they got it right, personally. I’ll never read that passage again the same way.

That’s how translations work. I remember reading a very familiar passage in a one of my French versions, and I stopped. I was going for an hour from translation to translation, French and English, then back to the original. Changed my interpretation forever. Language is a playground to the linguist.
 
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tbeachhead

Well-known member
Yes, my OP was based upon KC's claim and his misuse of Genesis 6:3.


Nope, never thought of that. Just the wof claim of living for 120 years... just like Copeland claimed. He isn't thinking of living forever, BTW. He is "faithing" for 120 based on his view of Genesis.

Looking at his rate of aging, his trying to hide it, I sure he isn't going to make it. His jet is plunging down to the earth and he will be six feet under before long. 😉
Based on what he said, he’s “faithing” based on what he says “the Lord told him”.
 

BlessedAnomaly

Well-known member
Can’t tell you how grieved I am for you. Responding used to be like responding to a friend. Now you’re so riddled with spite and derision, there is no reward. Notwithstanding, I will respond to your presumption and error, because you do not deliberately err. Your pride causes you too spew.
Hurts to be proven wrong, eh Pete? Backed up in a corner you get....angry.

Testament is an ecclesiastical term. Covenant and testament are practically synonymous.
This is not true. The Hebrew word for covenant is berith. No direct translation into the Greek. They used the word diathēkē, which unfortunately can mean either testament or covenant. But the nuance from the Hebrew does not allow for the two words to mean the same thing.

Only we’re talking Hebrew not Greek.
Ok, so this is what you do with my faux pas? So do you think these Greek gods of the NET bible translated the Old Testament?? Or perhaps, just maybe, oh heck, there COULD have been Hebrew scholars who were responsible for the Old Testament WHO KNEW MORE ABOUT HEBREW THAN YOU? No, not possible.

Genesis was written in Hebrew. The NET translation differs from that of the many other translations, and interprets the Hebrew to be speaking of imminent demise and not lifespan. Translators are often forced to interpret passages and make choices. Students are wise to read as many translations as they can to see how subtle differences arise. They are wise to delve into the original languages to learn why they arise.
I'm pretty sure I quoted the footnote for this somewhere, but I'm too lazy to go look. So I'll just reproduce it again. Here is what the NET translators thought of that verse (Gen 6:3) in regards to the 120 years --

  • Genesis 6:3 tn Heb “his days will be 120 years.” Some interpret this to mean that the age expectancy of people from this point on would be 120, but neither the subsequent narrative nor reality favors this. It is more likely that this refers to the time remaining between this announcement of judgment and the coming of the flood.
They mention lifespan. They refute that this is what it means and specify that it means the length of time before the flood.

NOTHING about the NET translation speaks of imminent (as of sudden but not measured) demise. NOTHING.

Now, I'll give you that maybe you wrote your sentence wrong, commas and all, and you meant that the NET did the lifespan thing and OTHER translators did not follow that semantic.

Since I’ve only studied ten languages formally, with merely grad school level koine Greek, I don’t pretend to compete with translators.
Thank you for admitting that.

However, as a forty-year practicant of applied linguistics, fluent enough in French to be employed as translator and used often as interpreter, I know something of the intricacies of translation. Since I’ve only been studying koine since 1985, I still use tools to parse some verb forms. I rarely need to go back to my grammar books to define the meaning of those forms.

(That being said, for Semitic languages, I studied the modern Arabic of the Levant in Nazareth. Not Hebrew. I rely heavily on other OT scholars and their scholarship, and cite them in my opinions. I was friends with the late John Rae who was on the committee that translated the first issue of the NASB. My observation on the NET translators choices for Genesis 6 is based only on comparison with other translators’ choices.)

You misunderstood what I said. Living is zoon in Greek. That is progressive. The believing person, being alive…
The word “never” is translated from a Greek double negative, ou me. This is emphatic negative. …will not possibly ever…Not Bible Hub translation. Just Greek grammar. Bible hub is great for putting the Greek at your fingertips. You still need to know some.
Good to know.

Hope you don’t injure yourself. Your English isn’t really all that good. Is it?
No. I've only achieve a minor in English at University. I write often and well.

But when I get into discussions like this, I tend to do it with a mindset of dialogue. I write as if I'm sitting with you, perhaps across from a campfire. So I'm not concerned with structure as much as getting the point across, which is just as much upon the reader as it is me, the writer.

Why am I explaining the same thing to you twice? I know enough Greek to see through the egregious NIV translators’ errors. I’m confident enough to see many of the the choices and sometimes to make them, or comment on them. I’ve enjoyed watching Ted go after a friend whose native language is Greek, who has used the koine Bible in church since his youth, telling him the English speaking “scholars” knew more about Greek than the Greek speaker.
Was that Mikey?

I once agreed with you totally. I don't disagree with you now, but there is a nuance.

When I was in high school we had to take two years of foreign language. I took French, living in the northeastern part of this country and being so close to Quebec. Perhaps it would be better than Spanish. After graduating I moved to Arizona. But I digress... In this French class we had a new student, a kid who came to America from .... wait for it .... France. He spoke fluent French. He failed the class. You see, he didn't speak proper French. He spoke one dialect of French and didn't know others, nor was he a student of the proper language. Could it be that Mikey was similar? Personally, I remember that Mikey had a little more to offer than just living in Greece. But he was no scholar.

And backing up to the first sentence in this quote. The NIV translators made their translation. It isn't error; it is understanding. I'll give you an example. I once got in a tizzy here over Mark 11:22. "Jesus said to them, "Have faith in God."

Most translation (if not all) read "Have faith in God." A.T. Robertson wrote that the correct and literal translation is "Have the faith of God." It caused quite a stir here on CARM.

So I took it upon myself to email Dr. Daniel Wallace at Dallas Theological Seminary. His answer: (paraphrased) Yeah, well kinda. I mean yes, that is literal. That's what it means. But translators will often use "the ubiquitous meaning for translating certain passages." Do you know what ubiquitous means? Of course you do. It means, widely accepted; found everywhere. In other words: other people did it so we did too, even though the true meaning would be "of".

So when we talk about NIV translators, they have a goal in mind as to what their bible will be used for. Is it a paraphrased bible? Is it a word study bible? Is it an English for understanding bible? These, and many more questions, play into the choices made. You may not like those choices. Don't use their bible. But to call it error simply because you don't like it?

Arrogance on display…with ignorance.
Too many mirrors in the room, Pete. Don't open your eyes yet.

He’s writing about Copeland. I’m thinking he’ll be as intrigued as I with the NET’s interpretation. I think they got it right, personally. I’ll never read that passage again the same way.
"thinking he'll" ... he who? Ted or Cope. Do you know that in English you are talking about Ted? Nearest noun doesn't apply here, but I think you know language well enough that I don't have to go into the detailed meaning as to why. If this is correct, Ted's already said he doesn't like the NET. Cope is a dyed in the wool KJVer (although I have seen him use the NKJV a time or two). I doubt either of these two will pick up the NET for anything more than a paperweight.

That’s how translations work. I remember reading a very familiar passage in a one of my French versions, and I stopped. I was going for an hour from translation to translation, French and English, then back to the original. Changed my interpretation forever. Language is a playground to the linguist.
Sounds fun.
 

BlessedAnomaly

Well-known member
Based on what he said, he’s “faithing” based on what he says “the Lord told him”.
You know based upon "the Lord told me so" if Cope doesn't last, nobody will be able to point a finger at him and say "you were wrong!" So he has little to fear in making this claim -- unless of course he gets very ill, but he'll have a comeback for that timeframe.

But the ministry that he leaves behind will take a hit. And they will stop teaching the nonsense. And life will move on. TBN is attempting to do that right now by purging all the Word of Faith and attempting to realign themselves with pentecostals and charismatics.
 

tbeachhead

Well-known member
You know based upon "the Lord told me so" if Cope doesn't last, nobody will be able to point a finger at him and say "you were wrong!" So he has little to fear in making this claim -- unless of course he gets very ill, but he'll have a comeback for that timeframe.
Oh...he has plenty to fear.

He's entirely and really only accountable to the one for whom he claims to speak. There is a reckoning coming to all of us...even the critics. Jesus said EVERY IDLE word. I wonder if that will be one idle word at a time...Painful to think about. Good to think about repenting while still breathing.

But the ministry that he leaves behind will take a hit. And they will stop teaching the nonsense. And life will move on. TBN is attempting to do that right now by purging all the Word of Faith and attempting to realign themselves with Pentecostals and charismatics.
Great to hear...I wouldn't know. I guess that means they're going with labels that you have approved of. Great start. If Robby Dawkins is only Pentecostal/Charismatic, maybe even critics will start to listen to truth and learn.
 

Tallen

Well-known member
BTW BA, both "covenant" and "testament" are legal terms... not ecclesiastical terms. Both terms are used in the bible to speak of legal binding conditions between party's or in regard to testimony of a party or party's. Ecclesiastical means used by the Christian church, both terms are used before there was any ecclesiastical form of the Christian church.

A covenant is a binding legal agreement between at least two party's with both negative and positive conditions on the party's involved.

A testament is a legal term used in regards to a will or distribution of property.

My 2 cents. 😉
 
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Slyzr

Well-known member
BTW BA, both "covenant" and "testament" are legal terms... not ecclesiastical terms. Both terms are used in the bible to speak of legal binding conditions between party's or in regard to testimony of a party or party's. Ecclesiastical means used as the Christian church, both terms are used before there was any ecclesiastical form of the Christian church.

A covenant is a binding legal agreement between at least two party's with both negative and positive conditions on the party's involved.

A testament is a legal term used in regards to a will or distribution of property.

My 2 cents. 😉

True that .......
 

tbeachhead

Well-known member
Had to post in two parts...Part 1 of 2 That's the trumpet of doom for discussions...
Hurts to be proven wrong, eh Pete? Backed up in a corner you get....angry.
Naaah. Grieved doesn't mean angry. BTW...this is the nonsensical pride I was alluding to. You're really swamped in it, aren't you. So sorry.
This is not true. The Hebrew word for covenant is berith. No direct translation into the Greek. They used the word diathēkē, which unfortunately can mean either testament or covenant. But the nuance from the Hebrew does not allow for the two words to mean the same thing.
Both testament and covenant are English words. English ignores its own etymology, as English speakers have left off studying English for decades. They are synonymous in ENGLISH. Greek and Hebrew are two separate languages. Languages seek to express ideas using themselves as the sole tool...when that doesn't work, they might go to transliteration, and steal ideas from other languages...that's how it works. "Testament is an ecclesiastical term" is absolutely true.
Ok, so this is what you do with my faux pas? So do you think these Greek gods of the NET bible translated the Old Testament??
No Bob. This is what I do when you're being pedantic...and your pride is so oppressive in your error that it's egregious. This is where you get off the hobby horse and come down to earth, and we face off like friends and human beings again...like the old days.
Or perhaps, just maybe, oh heck, there COULD have been Hebrew scholars who were responsible for the Old Testament WHO KNEW MORE ABOUT HEBREW THAN YOU? No, not possible.
But I wasn't arguing the Hebrew translation...
Remember? It was with the Greek that you made your error, and I told you that you were misreading Greek...not Hebrew. If you notice, I readily admit my credentials in both Greek and Hebrew. Studying language since 1970 doesn't make me an expert...but it does make me aware of my own strengths and weakness...and sometimes I can recognize and understand the strengths and weakness of others...even experts...who can also make erroneous choices over which the experts argue on forums ad nauseam.
I'm pretty sure I quoted the footnote for this somewhere, but I'm too lazy to go look. So I'll just reproduce it again. Here is what the NET translators thought of that verse (Gen 6:3) in regards to the 120 years -- They mention lifespan. They refute that this is what it means and specify that it means the length of time before the flood.
NOTHING about the NET translation speaks of imminent (as of sudden but not measured) demise. NOTHING.
Now, I'll give you that maybe you wrote your sentence wrong, commas and all, and you meant that the NET did the lifespan thing and OTHER translators did not follow that semantic.
Do you not read what I wrote? Why am I even doing this? I just said that the translation of Genesis 6 was a new interpretation to me, and reasonable...in fact...that's what I said in every post since you posted Genesis 6 the first time. IF you do go to Bible hub and look at all the translations they list, you learn how many translators look at the verse as "lifespan" and how many look at it as "imminent doom." The jury is clearly still out among the experts, and I would actually side with the NET scholars because it makes more sense.
Don't know if you read this paragraph.
Thank you for admitting that.
What's the big deal? I'm not trying to impress, but I'm responsible for the tools I've been given. Before God whom I serve. Not you.
Good to know.
Do you have a clue what you read? You were wrong...It's not Hebrew, but Greek...and the grammar I stated that you denied was undeniably correct.
I have no hope whatsoever that you "know" any more after reading than you did before. You have started with the sine qua non that I cannot contribute to any discussion on this board. That has become your childish "faux pas."
No. I've only achieve a minor in English at University. I write often and well. But when I get into discussions like this, I tend to do it with a mindset of dialogue. I write as if I'm sitting with you, perhaps across from a campfire. So I'm not concerned with structure as much as getting the point across, which is just as much upon the reader as it is me, the writer.
Here's a newsflash. This is a train wreck, not a "dialog". Your determination to "correct me" forces you to miss every salient point over which we agree...as your well established acceptance of and my concurrence with the NET translation in Genesis six. Totally unnecessary verbiage.
Was that Mikey?
No. Mario. Mikey was not Greek. Mario was Greek living where my wife used to live on Cyprus, and was raised in a Greek church that used the koine still in their services. We were discussing Mark 11:24, a highly contested, yet easily translated passage.
I once agreed with you totally. I don't disagree with you now, but there is a nuance.
When I was in high school we had to take two years of foreign language. I took French, living in the northeastern part of this country and being so close to Quebec. Perhaps it would be better than Spanish. After graduating I moved to Arizona. But I digress... In this French class we had a new student, a kid who came to America from .... wait for it .... France. He spoke fluent French. He failed the class. You see, he didn't speak proper French. He spoke one dialect of French and didn't know others, nor was he a student of the proper language. Could it be that Mikey was similar? Personally, I remember that Mikey had a little more to offer than just living in Greece. But he was no scholar.
I taught French for four decades. I've had folks from...wait for it...Quebec, who spoke French exclusively when they left school and went home. There is no such thing as "a dialect" of French. The language is ruled by a body called L'Académie Française. Since the seventeenth century, a group of hand chosen writers and poets have governed the language, and decided what is and is not French. French is not like low German, where the speakers in Bern Switzerland cannot understand the speakers of Zurich. The French in Quebec is the same as the French in France, Belgium and Switzerland, as well as the French in the Côte d'Ivoire, or Sénégal or the French in l'île de la Réunion, in the Indian Ocean. Even Tahiti speaks the same French. Each region has an accent and a colloquial slang, but in the school, it will be the same. My Canadian kids who spoke French fluently, and understood all my jokes and spoke French at home, failed not for their interesting accents, or because they put their luggage in the "boot" instead of the trunk, and walked on the "pavement" and not the sidewalk. They failed because they did not want to learn to read and write French. The intricacies of French grammar are daunting at first, and they did not have the patience. That grammar is universal...and no teacher teaches another...
 
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tbeachhead

Well-known member
Part 2...
And backing up to the first sentence in this quote. The NIV translators made their translation. It isn't error; it is understanding.
It is error and faulty theology. Sorry. We've been through this on this board, but since you want to go at it again, let's go:
I'll give you an example. I once got in a tizzy here over Mark 11:22. "Jesus said to them, "Have faith in God."
Most translation (if not all) read "Have faith in God." A.T. Robertson wrote that the correct and literal translation is "Have the faith of God." It caused quite a stir here on CARM.
So I took it upon myself to email Dr. Daniel Wallace at Dallas Theological Seminary. His answer: (paraphrased) Yeah, well kinda. I mean yes, that is literal. That's what it means. But translators will often use "the ubiquitous meaning for translating certain passages." Do you know what ubiquitous means? Of course you do. It means, widely accepted; found everywhere. In other words: other people did it so we did too, even though the true meaning would be "of".
And that's the equivalent logic of MacArthur's "Historic principle of biblical exegesis." If it hasn't happened for one thousand plus years, it cannot be expected." Because one translator missed the point, every translator misses the point until it becomes sacred tradition to miss what Jesus is saying.
Theou "of God", is genitive of quality...not ownership. "Divine" or "God-like" is what Jesus is clearly saying. His point is "You can do this too...if you believe as God believes." On this board, shorts got twisted, because there is denial that God actually has faith! Now that was a discussion worth having!
And that is not the most egregious error of the NIV...since everyone makes the same traditional error. (BTW, Mario, the Greek speaker, pointed out here that there "...was no other way to read that verse so that it made sense." Strange that I was the only participant in the discussion agreeing with the one who spoke Greek as his first language, and was raised reading Koine. The non-Greeks insisted that the language had changed to allow their misrepresentation centuries ago, and there was no way Mario could know that.

So when we talk about NIV translators, they have a goal in mind as to what their bible will be used for. Is it a paraphrased bible? Is it a word study bible? Is it an English for understanding bible? These, and many more questions, play into the choices made. You may not like those choices. Don't use their bible. But to call it error simply because you don't like it?
This is true for all translators. There are expressions in one language that cannot be translated into another. Explain to a Frenchman why you have to chop a tree DOWN before you can chop it UP. As the interpreter, you find the workaround, and lose the cute wordplay. Puns never translate any more than poetry. But error is still error. When Jesus said you must have faith "as" ('os) a grain of mustard seed, and the NIV translators went with "as small as", they err egregiously, and destroy the qualitive nature of faith. Faith cannot be quantified, as living faith is increasing faith. This is inexcusable error for scholars.

Too many mirrors in the room, Pete. Don't open your eyes yet.
Still don't see it, do you?


"thinking he'll" ... he who? Ted or Cope. Do you know that in English you are talking about Ted? Nearest noun doesn't apply here, but I think you know language well enough that I don't have to go into the detailed meaning as to why. If this is correct, Ted's already said he doesn't like the NET. Cope is a dyed in the wool KJVer (although I have seen him use the NKJV a time or two). I doubt either of these two will pick up the NET for anything more than a paperweight.
Um...I'm only talking about Ted...and I was right. He also found the NET take interesting.

Get off the hobby horse, Bob. Cope isn't even here.

Sounds fun.
Language is fun...worth a lifetime of study. You stay in touch with what you do not know. It's forcing the door open to new learning and understanding.
 
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tbeachhead

Well-known member
BTW BA, both "covenant" and "testament" are legal terms... not ecclesiastical terms. Both terms are used in the bible to speak of legal binding conditions between party's or in regard to testimony of a party or party's. Ecclesiastical means used by the Christian church, both terms are used before there was any ecclesiastical form of the Christian church.
A term can have legal connotations and still be "ecclesiastical".


A covenant is a binding legal agreement between at least two party's with both negative and positive conditions on the party's involved.

A testament is a legal term used in regards to a will or distribution of property.

My 2 cents. 😉
This is correct. "Covenant" is found in the Bible. "Testament" using your legal definition is not. No one left a "will and testament" in the legal sense anywhere in scripture. That term was chosen by the church (ecclesiastical) to define what Jesus left us. When "testament" is used to mean "memorial", on the other hand, that is found in scripture. The rock Ebenezer, "Stone of Remembrance", was a testament to God's faithfulness and willingness, "He has brought us this far", said Samuel.
 

Slyzr

Well-known member
For the third time: "'Testament is an ecclesiastical term' is absolutely true."

And your point?

What I am saying is that is not really a point.

What is your point?

Unless your point is to ask everyone to die.

That being said, you are an evangelistic type.

So what, you can ask me to die .....
 
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