YHWH PIERCED = JESUS PIERCED

The pronominal suffix modifies 'redeemer' as a possession of "YHWH King of Israel" and not "Israel". Why? Because Israel is part of the tittle "King of Israel" and not the subject in the verse.
You are simply wrong my friend.

The verse is very simple, YHWH is both Israel’s king and redeemer. He is also the Lord of hosts.
But let's test it.
Thus says Biden the president of the United States and his vice president Kamala Harris.
Based on the above 'vice president Kamala Harris' is a possession of 'Biden the president of the United States' or 'United States'?
This was a horrible analogy, not only because those two are a joke and have no business being in the White House but also because the analogy is nowhere close to what Isaiah wrote.

An actual analogy would be, ‘Thus says David, the king of Israel and his commander’

David is both Israel’s king and commander.
 
You are simply wrong my friend.

The verse is very simple, YHWH is both Israel’s king and redeemer. He is also the Lord of hosts.

This was a horrible analogy, not only because those two are a joke and have no business being in the White House but also because the analogy is nowhere close to what Isaiah wrote.

An actual analogy would be, ‘Thus says David, the king of Israel and his commander’

David is both Israel’s king and commander.
And HIS commander????
Hmm, sounds like two Persons.
 
You are simply wrong my friend.

The verse is very simple, YHWH is both Israel’s king and redeemer. He is also the Lord of hosts.

This was a horrible analogy, not only because those two are a joke and have no business being in the White House but also because the analogy is nowhere close to what Isaiah wrote.

An actual analogy would be, ‘Thus says David, the king of Israel and his commander’

David is both Israel’s king and commander.
The pre-incarnate Lord appeared in human form to Abraham and Jacob as well as many other people in the Old Testament. Isaiah had seen Him as in Isiah 6.
Jesus spoke of His existence and glory with His Father in the Garden also stating before Abraham was, I am.


Abraham:

Then the Lord appeared to him by the terebinth trees of Mamre, as he was sitting in the tent door in the heat of the day. So he lifted his eyes and looked, and behold, three men were standing by him; and when he saw them, he ran from the tent door to meet them, and bowed himself to the ground, and said, “My Lord, if I have now found favor in Your sight, do not pass on by Your servant.” (Genesis 18:1–3)
Jacob:

Then Jacob was left alone; and a Man wrestled with him until the breaking of day. Now when He saw that He did not prevail against him, He touched the socket of his hip; and the socket of Jacob’s hip was out of joint as He wrestled with him. . . . And He said, “Your name shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel; for you have struggled with God and with men, and have prevailed.”
Then Jacob asked, saying, “Tell me Your name, I pray.”
And He said, “Why is it that you ask about My name?” And He blessed him there. So Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: “For I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.” (Genesis 32:24–25, 28–30)
 
The pre-incarnate Lord appeared in human form
So Jesus was just temporarily human before he was permanently human? I guess he was just trying it on for a while before he decided to plunge all in
to Abraham and Jacob as well as many other people in the Old Testament.
Jesus’ God, YHWH, is who appeared in the OT. It’s called a theophany but trinitarians just love to remove Jesus’ God from the Bible as much as possible.
Isaiah had seen Him as in Isiah 6.
Isiah saw Jesus’ glory and wrote about him, meaning that as a prophet he saw the future and wrote about him.
Jesus spoke of His existence and glory with His Father in the Garden
Jesus had glory with God awaiting him for the work he was to do. Having something with God doesn’t mean you existed before you were born. Believers were predestined in Christ before the foundation of the world but that doesn’t mean we were alive then. It’s quite simple once you replace your Greek philosophical mindset with a biblical Hebraic one.
also stating before Abraham was, I am.
The blind man Jesus healed also said “I am” (εγω ειμι) in John 9:9 so he must also be God
 
So Jesus was just temporarily human before he was permanently human? I guess he was just trying it on for a while before he decided to plunge all in
Actually we are made in His image and likeness.
Jesus’ God, YHWH, is who appeared in the OT. It’s called a theophany but trinitarians just love to remove Jesus’ God from the Bible as much as possible.
Call it what you want but we know that no one could see the Father’s face and live.
Isiah saw Jesus’ glory and wrote about him, meaning that as a prophet he saw the future and wrote about him.
Maybe read it! It was in real time.
Jesus had glory with God awaiting him for the work he was to do. Having something with God doesn’t mean you existed before you were born. Believers were predestined in Christ before the foundation of the world but that doesn’t mean we were alive then. It’s quite simple once you replace your Greek philosophical mindset with a biblical Hebraic one.
His glory was with His Father as He created everything as the my say’s.
Maybe read it.
The blind man Jesus healed also said “I am” (εγω ειμι) in John 9:9 so he must also be God
The blind man was not before Abraham was but I Am was.
 
Actually we are made in His image and likeness.
Humans, including Jesus, are made in God’s image. Jesus is the only one to perfectly represent God’s image and that’s why we are to be confirmed to the image of YHWH’s son.
Call it what you want but we know that no one could see the Father’s face and live.
That’s why they saw a theophany. Also, why didn’t Daniel die when he saw the Father in Daniel 7:9?
Maybe read it! It was in real time.
Prophets in their present day see the future and write about it. What Isaiah saw was the future and he wrote about it in his present day, 700 years before it came to pass as John was stating.
His glory was with His Father as He created everything as the my say’s.
Maybe read it.
Then we too were alive before the foundation of the world. God must’ve just erased our preincarnate minds I guess.
The blind man was not before Abraham was but I Am was.
Since you think “I am” is a reference to deity then yes, the blind man was also before Abraham since he claimed to be the I am.
 
So Jesus was just temporarily human before he was permanently human? I guess he was just trying it on for a while before he decided to plunge all in

Jesus’ God, YHWH, is who appeared in the OT. It’s called a theophany but trinitarians just love to remove Jesus’ God from the Bible as much as possible.

Isiah saw Jesus’ glory and wrote about him, meaning that as a prophet he saw the future and wrote about him.

Jesus had glory with God awaiting him for the work he was to do. Having something with God doesn’t mean you existed before you were born. Believers were predestined in Christ before the foundation of the world but that doesn’t mean we were alive then. It’s quite simple once you replace your Greek philosophical mindset with a biblical Hebraic one.

The blind man Jesus healed also said “I am” (εγω ειμι) in John 9:9 so he must also be God
The Son appeared in a TEMPORARY visible form to communicate with men. He was NOT temporarily a Man.
Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH(identified as Jesus).Nothing in Isaiah 6 indicates this glory was future.
The Son HAD glory WITH The Father BEFORE the world was. He pre-existed His incarnation as A MAN.
Analogy with the blind man is asinine. He was NOT referring to his existence as was Jesus Christ.
 
You are simply wrong my friend.

The verse is very simple, YHWH is both Israel’s king and redeemer. He is also the Lord of hosts.

This was a horrible analogy, not only because those two are a joke and have no business being in the White House but also because the analogy is nowhere close to what Isaiah wrote.

An actual analogy would be, ‘Thus says David, the king of Israel and his commander’

David is both Israel’s king and commander.
Your analogy would work if it read ‘Thus says David, the king of Israel and its commander’ = commander belongs to Israel
its =belonging to or associated with a thing previously mentioned or easily identified.
‘Thus says David, the king of Israel and his commander’ = commander belongs to David.
his = used to refer to a thing or things belonging to or associated with a male person or animal previously mentioned.

On October 31, 1517 Martin Luther nailed his 95 theses to the church door at Wittenberg and helped launch the Protestant Reformation. The position was stated [Sola Scriptura] that the Bible alone was authoritative on matters of faith and conduct, and anything in addition the Bible was wrong. And that is still the Orthodox Protestant position.

You cannot argue that the Bible is true and at the same time not accept the grammatical structure and accepted meanings of words true.
The following is the only correct grammatical explanation.
The pronominal suffix modifies 'redeemer' as a possession of "YHWH King of Israel" and not "Israel". Why? Because Israel is part of the tittle "King of Israel" and not the subject in the verse.
 
Humans, including Jesus, are made in God’s image. Jesus is the only one to perfectly represent God’s image and that’s why we are to be confirmed to the image of YHWH’s son.

That’s why they saw a theophany. Also, why didn’t Daniel die when he saw the Father in Daniel 7:9?

Prophets in their present day see the future and write about it. What Isaiah saw was the future and he wrote about it in his present day, 700 years before it came to pass as John was stating.

Then we too were alive before the foundation of the world. God must’ve just erased our preincarnate minds I guess.

Since you think “I am” is a reference to deity then yes, the blind man was also before Abraham since he claimed to be the I am.
We were created in God's image. Jesus was NOT.
What Isaiah saw was the glory of YHWH, I.e. Jesus Christ.
Men are NOT incarnated; ONLY Christ was.
The blind was was referring to the fact he was the man healed.
Jesus was referring to His EXITENCE BEFORE Abraham.
Any more asinine assertions??????????????
 
Humans, including Jesus, are made in God’s image. Jesus is the only one to perfectly represent God’s image and that’s why we are to be confirmed to the image of YHWH’s son.

That’s why they saw a theophany. Also, why didn’t Daniel die when he saw the Father in Daniel 7:9?

Prophets in their present day see the future and write about it. What Isaiah saw was the future and he wrote about it in his present day, 700 years before it came to pass as John was stating.

Then we too were alive before the foundation of the world. God must’ve just erased our preincarnate minds I guess.

Since you think “I am” is a reference to deity then yes, the blind man was also before Abraham since he claimed to be the I am.
Saying I AM in reference to someone who existed thousands of years before IS a bald faced claim to Deity.
 
So Jesus was just temporarily human before he was permanently human? I guess he was just trying it on for a while before he decided to plunge all in
1. According to Jesus no has seen or heard the Father.

Jn 6:46 Not that anyone has seen the Father, except He who is from God; He has seen the Father.

Jn 5:37 And the Father Himself, who sent Me, has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time, nnor seen His form.

2. God does not share His name. Note Lord translates from YHWH.

Is 42:8 I am the Lord, that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images.

Main argument: Genesis chapter 18 Note vs 1,13,17,22 and 33 “Lord” translates from “YHWH”. According to Moses YHWH appeared, ate, drank and conversed with Abraham by the terebinth trees of Mam’re. Who was it? Since reason will not dictate that the immutable essence of the Father be changed into human form, or that Moses would create such a story under the inspiration of God, who else could be described as appearing in human form but Jesus identified as YHWH.
Jesus’ God, YHWH, is who appeared in the OT. It’s called a theophany but trinitarians just love to remove Jesus’ God from the Bible as much as possible.
Hosea wrote that Jacob met the Angel of the Lord who in fact was God.

Ho 12:3-5 He took his brother by the heel in the womb, And in his strength he struggled with God [Elohim]. 4 Yes, he struggled with the Angel and prevailed; He wept, and sought favor from Him. He found Him in Bethel, And there He spoke to us—5 That is, the Lord [YHWH] God of hosts. The Lord [YHWH] is His memorable name.


Isiah saw Jesus’ glory and wrote about him, meaning that as a prophet he saw the future and wrote about him.
Don't add to scripture. John did not write this. John wrote that Isaiah saw Jesus Glory when He {Isiah} wrote X. Did Isaiah write that he saw the glory of Jesus, no that he saw the glory of God.
Jesus had glory with God awaiting him for the work he was to do. Having something with God doesn’t mean you existed before you were born. Believers were predestined in Christ before the foundation of the world but that doesn’t mean we were alive then. It’s quite simple once you replace your Greek philosophical mindset with a biblical Hebraic one.
Phil 2:5 Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it [b]robbery to be equal with God, 7 but [c]made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.

Note, Paul states in Phil 2 that Jesus did exist before the incarnation. Place close attention to “consider” in vs 6. Consider = think carefully about (something), typically before making a decision. Jesus would have to exist to be able to “consider’ anything. What was Jesus thinking carefully about? To make a decision you need to have more than one option to decide on, therefore He decided between considering it something to be grasped, and not to be grasped. Therefore to be able to consider between two options one would have to have the cognitive ability to freely choose, otherwise known as free will. And if free will then a cognitive thinking entity separate from the One He is considering equality with.

As the text reads Jesus “considered” between two options in vs 6 and executed His choice in vs 7, and dwelt amongst us vs 8. Based on the grammar it is in chronological orders; therefore vs 6 takes place before the incarnation.
The blind man Jesus healed also said “I am” (εγω ειμι) in John 9:9 so he must also be God
Honesty is the best policy.
9 Some said, “This is he.” Others said, [c]“He is like him.” He said, “I am he.

How does this help your argument?
 
Humans, including Jesus, are made in God’s image. Jesus is the only one to perfectly represent God’s image and that’s why we are to be confirmed to the image of YHWH’s son.
Heb 1:3 who [Jesus] being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person…

Express image translates from:

χαρακτήρ [charakter] AV translates as “express image” once. 1 the instrument used for engraving or carving. 2 the mark stamped upon that instrument or wrought out on it. 2a a mark or figure burned in (Lev. 13:28) or stamped on, an impression. 2b the exact expression - (the image) of any person or thing, marked likeness, precise reproduction in every respect, i.e. facsimile. [Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible]

The image stamped on a coin, conveys the idea that if YHWH be represented under the concept of substance or being Jesus is the exact resemblance of Theos. [FORM]

Combined with "His person" translates from

5287 ὑπόστασις [hupostasis] Five occurrences; AV translates as “confidence” twice, “confident” once, “person” once, and “substance” once. 1 a setting or placing under. 1a thing put under, substructure, foundation. 2 that which has foundation, is firm. 2a that which has actual existence. 2a1 a substance, real being. 2b the substantial quality, nature, of a person or thing. 2c the steadfastness of mind, firmness, courage, resolution. 2c1 confidence, firm trust, assurance. [Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible]

The express image of his person (χαρακτήρ=ὁ= ὑπόστασις = αὐτός). Rend. the very image (or impress) of his substance. The primary sense of ὑπόστασις substance is something which stands underneath; foundation, ground of hope or confidence, and so, assurance itself. In a philosophical sense, substantial nature; the real nature of anything which underlies and supports its outward form and properties. [SUBSTANCE]

The author is using a hylemorphic argument to establish the deity of Jesus. He is using the physical to describe the spiritual.

Therefore, Jesus is the exact form and matter of God, = equal to God Himself.
Prophets in their present day see the future and write about it. What Isaiah saw was the future and he wrote about it in his present day, 700 years before it came to pass as John was stating.
Wrong. Seeing future events is not what is common amongst prophets, but that they speak for God.
Is 6:1 In the year that King Uzziah died, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, high and lifted up, and the train of His robe filled the temple. 2 Above it stood seraphim; each one had six wings: with two he covered his face, with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. 3 And one cried to another and said:
“Holy, holy, holy is the Lord of hosts;
The whole earth is full of His glory!”
4 And the posts of the door were shaken by the voice of him who cried out, and the house was filled with smoke.
5 So I said:

“Woe is me, for I am [a]undone!
Because I am a man of unclean lips,
And I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips;
For my eyes have seen the King,
The Lord of hosts.”

Past tense, Isaiah wrote about X, which he saw. Past event.
 
Humans, including Jesus, are made in God’s image. Jesus is the only one to perfectly represent God’s image and that’s why we are to be confirmed to the image of YHWH’s son.

That’s why they saw a theophany. Also, why didn’t Daniel die when he saw the Father in Daniel 7:9?
Daniel had a vision of the future Yeshua going to His Father.
Abraham and Jacob was real time.
Stephen saw God and died.
Don’t you believe what God told Moses to see His face you will die.
Prophets in their present day see the future and write about it. What Isaiah saw was the future and he wrote about it in his present day, 700 years before it came to pass as John was stating.
Your ignorance of Isaiah seeing the Lord.
 
Your analogy would work if it read ‘Thus says David, the king of Israel and its commander’ = commander belongs to Israel
its =belonging to or associated with a thing previously mentioned or easily identified.
Wow, are you really sticking to this nonsense that there are two YHWHs and that one of those YHWHs is the redeemer of the other? You are really going loco here my friend.

Again, since verse 1 the nation of Israel has been addressed as if it’s a singular person which is very common is the OT, “Israel whom I have chosen”… “Thus says YHWH who made you”… “I will pour my spirit upon your offspring, and my blessing on your descendants.”

With your argument it should read “Israel which I have chosen” but it doesn’t because the entire nation is being addressed as a single person “him”.
(יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל בָּחַ֥רְתִּי בֽוֹ )

Here are many translations that specifically point out that “his” refers to Israel. Though I’m sure you will still refuse to take your blinders off.

New International Version
“This is what the LORD says— Israel’s King and Redeemer, the LORD Almighty: I am the first and I am the last; apart from me there is no God.

New Living Translation
This is what the LORD says—Israel’s King and Redeemer, the LORD of Heaven’s Armies: “I am the First and the Last; there is no other God.

Berean Study Bible
Thus says the LORD, the King and Redeemer of Israel, the LORD of Hosts: “I am the first and I am the last, and there is no God but Me.

Christian Standard Bible
This is what the LORD, the King of Israel and its Redeemer, the LORD of Armies, says: I am the first and I am the last. There is no God but me.

Holman Christian Standard Bible
This is what the LORD, the King of Israel and its Redeemer, the LORD of Hosts, says: I am the first and I am the last. There is no God but Me.

Brenton Septuagint Translation
Thus saith God the King of Israel, and the God of hosts that delivered him; I am the first, and I am hereafter: beside me there is no God.

Good News Translation
The LORD, who rules and protects Israel, the LORD Almighty, has this to say: "I am the first, the last, the only God; there is no other god but me.

International Standard Version
This is what the LORD says, the King of Israel and its Redeemer— the LORD of the Heavenly Armies is his name— "I am the first and I am the last, and apart from me there is no God.

New American Bible
Thus says the LORD, Israel’s king, its redeemer, the LORD of hosts: I am the first, I am the last; there is no God but me.

NET Bible
This is what the LORD, Israel's king, says, their protector, the LORD who commands armies: "I am the first and I am the last, there is no God but me.

On October 31, 1517 Martin Luther nailed his 95 theses to the church door at Wittenberg and helped launch the Protestant Reformation. The position was stated [Sola Scriptura] that the Bible alone was authoritative on matters of faith and conduct, and anything in addition the Bible was wrong. And that is still the Orthodox Protestant position.
How can the Protestant position be “orthodox” if wasn’t around until 1600 years after the time of Jesus? Tell me, the RC orthodoxy has been around much much longer so why would you side with an extremely late “orthodoxy”??
You cannot argue that the Bible is true and at the same time not accept the grammatical structure and accepted meanings of words true.
My argument is simple, the Bible is true in it’s entirety, including grammatical structure and the meanings of words. Your issue is that you don’t know what syntax and context is.
The following is the only correct grammatical explanation.
No, it’s not, and the fact that you keep repeating this shows how bad you are at syntax and context.
The pronominal suffix modifies 'redeemer' as a possession of "YHWH King of Israel" and not "Israel". Why? Because Israel is part of the tittle "King of Israel" and not the subject in the verse.
The many translations I cited above clearly prove you wrong but you just won’t let go of your multiple gods theory.
 
1. According to Jesus no has seen or heard the Father.
Right, because no one can. What they saw and heard were theophanies.
2. God does not share His name.
“Holy Father, keep them in your name, which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are one.”
Note Lord translates from YHWH.
It also translates from Adonai, adon and adoni.
Is 42:8 I am the Lord, that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images.
Did Jesus say those words?
Main argument: Genesis chapter 18 Note vs 1,13,17,22 and 33 “Lord” translates from “YHWH”. According to Moses YHWH appeared, ate, drank and conversed with Abraham by the terebinth trees of Mam’re. Who was it? Since reason will not dictate that the immutable essence of the Father be changed into human form, or that Moses would create such a story under the inspiration of God, who else could be described as appearing in human form but Jesus identified as YHWH.

Hosea wrote that Jacob met the Angel of the Lord who in fact was God.

Ho 12:3-5 He took his brother by the heel in the womb, And in his strength he struggled with God [Elohim]. 4 Yes, he struggled with the Angel and prevailed; He wept, and sought favor from Him. He found Him in Bethel, And there He spoke to us—5 That is, the Lord [YHWH] God of hosts. The Lord [YHWH] is His memorable name.
You really need to study what a theophany is…
Don't add to scripture. John did not write this. John wrote that Isaiah saw Jesus Glory when He {Isiah} wrote X. Did Isaiah write that he saw the glory of Jesus, no that he saw the glory of God.
Again with the ignoring of context.

When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them. Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him, so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: “Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?Therefore they could not believe. For again Isaiah said, “He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them.”

Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. Nevertheless, many even of the authorities believed in him, but for fear of the Pharisees they did not confess it, so that they would not be put out of the synagogue; for they loved the glory that comes from man more than the glory that comes from God.

The glory that Isaiah saw was the glory that Jesus would receive from God because unlike the Pharisees, he did not seek the glory of men but rather he sought the glory that comes from God, his God, who is YHWH.

You are as blind as the those men who Isaiah prophesied about.
Phil 2:5 Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it [b]robbery to be equal with God, 7 but [c]made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.

Note, Paul states in Phil 2 that Jesus did exist before the incarnation. Place close attention to “consider” in vs 6. Consider = think carefully about (something), typically before making a decision. Jesus would have to exist to be able to “consider’ anything. What was Jesus thinking carefully about? To make a decision you need to have more than one option to decide on, therefore He decided between considering it something to be grasped, and not to be grasped. Therefore to be able to consider between two options one would have to have the cognitive ability to freely choose, otherwise known as free will. And if free will then a cognitive thinking entity separate from the One He is considering equality with.

As the text reads Jesus “considered” between two options in vs 6 and executed His choice in vs 7, and dwelt amongst us vs 8. Based on the grammar it is in chronological orders; therefore vs 6 takes place before the incarnation.
The word form (morphe) literally means outward appearance so Jesus had the outward appearance of God. Jesus performed miracles, signs and wonders and he spoke the words of God as YHWH himself said his prophet would and this is what it means that he was in the form of God. But we know based from Acts 2:22 and other verses that it was actually God performing these miracles through Jesus not that Jesus actually possessed this power innately.

When it says he did not count equality with God something to be grasped it means that even though he spoke for God and could perform miracles he didn’t try and take advantage of it for personal gain.

Emptied himself means he made himself of no reputation, which supports that he was not trying to exalt himself to take advantage for personal gain as he was equal with God in authority/position. The Louw & Nida states that emptying means ‘to completely remove or eliminate elements of high status or rank by eliminating all privileges or prerogatives associated with such status or rank — ‘to divest oneself of position’

So clearly, Jesus being in the form of God is talking about position, he is the son of God, the King of Israel, the Messiah. His position is next to God as ruler over all yet he humbled himself and took on the form (position) of a servant. Though he was the king he lived as a lowly servant hence the appearance/likeness of a man.

Taking the form of a servant is also the outward appearance of a servant. It shows the contrast in how he lived his life, he performed miracles and people followed him by the thousands yet in contrast he refused to be crowned king, he had no place to lay his head and humbly served others.

This is the contrast Paul is making, not that he was God and became a human being, that’s what you erroneously read into the text.

Jesus humbled himself and did so even unto death and then in v. 9, God, because of this, highly exalted him. This is exactly what Jesus said in Matt. 23:12. No one has or can humble himself more than Christ and no can ever be exalted as high as Christ, to the right hand of God, the Most High, the Majesty on High. The only one who is above Jesus is YHWH, his God.

By being exalted over all creation he was given a name above all names and when we bow and confess him as Lord it’s all to the glory of God the Father.

It’s very simple, Jesus, the most important man in the world lived and died as a humble servant and was therefore exalted, he is our example to be humble and serve others and to regard them higher than ourselves.

Honesty is the best policy.
9 Some said, “This is he.” Others said, [c]“He is like him.” He said, “I am he.

How does this help your argument?
Seriously?
You must not know enough Greek or about Bible translations because if you did you’d know that in the Greek the blind man simply says εγώ ειμι “I am”.

You’d also know that the reason the word “he” is in italics is because that’s how certain translations like the NASB lets you know that word is not in the original Greek manuscript. E.g. “for unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins.” John 8:24 NAS95

Let’s see if you will be honest and admit you were wrong here…
 
Heb 1:3 who [Jesus] being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person…
The word there is not “person” and being the image of God means you are not God.
Express image translates from:

χαρακτήρ [charakter] AV translates as “express image” once. 1 the instrument used for engraving or carving. 2 the mark stamped upon that instrument or wrought out on it. 2a a mark or figure burned in (Lev. 13:28) or stamped on, an impression. 2b the exact expression - (the image) of any person or thing, marked likeness, precise reproduction in every respect, i.e. facsimile. [Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible]

The image stamped on a coin, conveys the idea that if YHWH be represented under the concept of substance or being Jesus is the exact resemblance of Theos. [FORM]
Yes, all this proves Jesus is not God but the image of God. Just like the express image of Cesar on a coin is not actually Cesar
Combined with "His person" translates from

5287 ὑπόστασις [hupostasis] Five occurrences; AV translates as “confidence” twice, “confident” once, “person” once, and “substance” once. 1 a setting or placing under. 1a thing put under, substructure, foundation. 2 that which has foundation, is firm. 2a that which has actual existence. 2a1 a substance, real being. 2b the substantial quality, nature, of a person or thing. 2c the steadfastness of mind, firmness, courage, resolution. 2c1 confidence, firm trust, assurance. [Strong, James: The Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible]
The word ὑπόστασις does not mean “person”. This is just trinitarians anachronistically using that definition which wasn’t used for ὑπόστασις until several hundred years later.

It’s like someone today reading the first line of the hymn, He Arose Today, written in 1909 and applying today’s meaning of the word “gay” instead of what it meant back then.

“O heart, be glad and gay,
A blessèd hope we know
The express image of his person (χαρακτήρ=ὁ= ὑπόστασις = αὐτός). Rend. the very image (or impress) of his substance. The primary sense of ὑπόστασις substance is something which stands underneath; foundation, ground of hope or confidence, and so, assurance itself. In a philosophical sense, substantial nature; the real nature of anything which underlies and supports its outward form and properties. [SUBSTANCE]

The author is using a hylemorphic argument to establish the deity of Jesus.
No, that’s what you’re trying to do.
Therefore, Jesus is the exact form and matter of God, = equal to God Himself.
Wrong again, Jesus is not the same “form or matter of God” he is the image of God which is not the same as actually being God.

Seeing future events is not what is common amongst prophets, but that they speak for God.
Prophets hear from God and see the future which God revels to them, many times in visions or dreams. This is a simple biblical fact.
 
Daniel had a vision of the future Yeshua going to His Father.
That’s irrelevant because God is timeless. Daniel saw the Father, plain and simple.
Abraham and Jacob was real time.
Yep, it’s called a theophany.
Stephen saw God and died.
Stephen was stoned to death…
Don’t you believe what God told Moses to see His face you will die.
Yes, which is why God appears as theophanies.
Your ignorance of Isaiah seeing the Lord.
Your as blind as the men Isaiah prophesied about.
 
The word there is not “person” and being the image of God means you are not God.

Yes, all this proves Jesus is not God but the image of God. Just like the express image of Cesar on a coin is not actually Cesar

The word ὑπόστασις does not mean “person”. This is just trinitarians anachronistically using that definition which wasn’t used for ὑπόστασις until several hundred years later.

It’s like someone today reading the first line of the hymn, He Arose Today, written in 1909 and applying today’s meaning of the word “gay” instead of what it meant back then.

“O heart, be glad and gay,
A blessèd hope we know

No, that’s what you’re trying to do.

Wrong again, Jesus is not the same “form or matter of God” he is the image of God which is not the same as actually being God.


Prophets hear from God and see the future which God revels to them, many times in visions or dreams. This is a simple biblical fact.
Brightness of His glory and the EXACT IMAGE of His Person. And He is The King of Israel.
Wow! Jesus must be God.
 
That’s irrelevant because God is timeless. Daniel saw the Father, plain and simple.

Yep, it’s called a theophany.

Stephen was stoned to death…

Yes, which is why God appears as theophanies.

Your as blind as the men Isaiah prophesied about.
Stephen was stoned to death for claiming Divine honors to Jesus Christ.
 
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