You just admitted that the Word at John 1:1 is a person...

Yahchristian

Well-known member
How interesting Roger, you just admitted that the Word at John 1:1 is a person...

I agree with both of you that each mention of the phrase "the Word" in John 1:1 refers to the same PERSON.

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

But here are two questions to clarify our views...

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.

2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.


P.S.

Here is an overview of what I believe...

GOD is spirit and is the only one who is eternal. GOD is also in the universe as spirit and as a human. GOD in the universe as spirit is called the Spirit of God, GOD in the universe as a human is called the Son of God, and eternal GOD is called God the Father.
 

Dizerner

Well-known member
I agree with both of you that each mention of the phrase "the Word" in John 1:1 refers to the same PERSON.

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

But here are two questions to clarify our views...

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.

2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.


P.S.

Here is an overview of what I believe...

GOD is spirit and is the only one who is eternal. GOD is also in the universe as spirit and as a human. GOD in the universe as spirit is called the Spirit of God, GOD in the universe as a human is called the Son of God, and eternal GOD is called God the Father.

But do they refer to the same mode?

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a MODE?


2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same MODE?
 

Yahchristian

Well-known member
But do they refer to the same mode?

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a MODE?

2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same MODE?

No, Yes, Yes.

"mode" is defined as "a way or manner in which something occurs or is experienced, expressed, or done".

And "the Word" and "God" in John 1:1 refer to two distinct "manner in which something occurs" of the SAME PERSON.

Just as you might believe that "the Son of Man" and "the Son of God" refer to two distinct "manner in which something occurs" of the SAME PERSON.


Now are you able to answer the questions from the OP or not...

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.

2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.
 

Yahchristian

Well-known member
Now are you able to answer the questions from the OP or not...

TRINITARIANS...

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.

2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.
 

johnny guitar

Well-known member
I agree with both of you that each mention of the phrase "the Word" in John 1:1 refers to the same PERSON.

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

But here are two questions to clarify our views...

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.

2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.


P.S.

Here is an overview of what I believe...

GOD is spirit and is the only one who is eternal. GOD is also in the universe as spirit and as a human. GOD in the universe as spirit is called the Spirit of God, GOD in the universe as a human is called the Son of God, and eternal GOD is called God the Father.
1) Yes.
2) Yes.
But The first mention of God in this passage refers to ANOTHER Person.
 

Pipiripi

Active member
Our problem as Christians is that we read 1 verse and going to make our own story about this verse. We must read John 1:1-18.
So my friend go read it and then let me know who is that person.
Remember that the Bible interpreted itself.
 

e v e

Super Member
I agree with both of you that each mention of the phrase "the Word" in John 1:1 refers to the same PERSON.

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

But here are two questions to clarify our views...

1.) Does the first mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to a PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.

2.) Does the second mention of the word "God" in John 1:1 refer to the same PERSON?

John 1:1... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

I say Yes.


P.S.

Here is an overview of what I believe...

GOD is spirit and is the only one who is eternal. GOD is also in the universe as spirit and as a human. GOD in the universe as spirit is called the Spirit of God, GOD in the universe as a human is called the Son of God, and eternal GOD is called God the Father.
the spirit of God is a she. God’s feminine spirit.
 

e v e

Super Member
hebrew language is used i. the OT. What God says in the OT provide the legal basis for the NT.
 

OldShepherd

Well-known member
I read the interlinear...
not the translations.
I dont care what esau's version says.
And how do you know the "interlinear" you are consulting is correct? If it relies on the 19th century Strong's, as most online out of copy right references do, it more than likely contains errors. Strong's is NOT a lexicon it does not provide scholarship supporting translations. Strong's merely lists how words were translated in the KJV and has been found to have about 15,000 errors or omissions.
 
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