This a complicated conversation. I enjoy conversations such as we are having. I will commit to answering your question according what I believe the Scriptures teach. Can we agree on using the Scriptures as the foundation of accepting evidence?
Yes. But with our understanding of scripture course.
I believe sin is inevitable. I believe when God created Adam (man), God did not provide circumstances to prevent "Adam" from sinning. In theology, we reference this condition as "peccable".
I would add God didn't prevent or cause Adam to sin. It was libertarian ie nonpredetermined.
1. Do you believe Adam was peccable?
2. If so, then wasn't Adam's sin inevitable?
3. Given these circumstances, how do you attribute culpability?
1. Yes, Adam was peccable.
2. Yes, Adam would inevitably have sinned if given an eternity to do so, clearly much sooner than later.
3. I would say that Adam had a probation period during which he could have passed but didn't. If the probation had passed and he didn't sin God would have preserved Him.
For a Scriptural reference to deal with these three questions....
Rom 9:20 But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, “Why have you made me like this?”
Rom 9:21 Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for dishonorable use?
I would say after Adam, knowing revelation or at the onset of realizing natural revelation, all literally sinned and came under Rom 9:20-21. Notice that the man speaking although a victim of circumstance still libertarianly realized enough to question it.
But nonetheless all by natural revleation were guilty but could still seek God by natural revelation. Meanwhile God staved off His judgement until Christ.
Romans 1:20 (KJV) For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
Eventually the Gentiles were the greater seekers and accepted the gospel more that the Jews. But it is simultaneously *because* ie libertarianly they *sought* it by faith while the Jews didn't ie continued to adhere to the law.
Isaiah 11:10 (KJV) And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the *Gentiles seek*: and his rest shall be glorious.
Acts 13:42 (KJV) And when the Jews were gone out of the synagogue, the *Gentiles besought* *that these words might be preached to them the next sabbath.
And again the *Gentiles sought* *because* ie libertarianly they sought it by faith while the Jews continued by law.
Romans 9:30-32 (KJV)
30 What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
32 Wherefore? **Because* they *sought* it not by faith**, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;
I realize there is more to this conversation than the three points above. I just ask that you deal with the three points above before we continue.