Now the question is HOW did the LORD Determined to “take back what he owns”?
God could Determine to “take back” in many different ways. He could have Determined to “take back” his things by the means of them simply disappearing but he instead Determined to “take back” by means such as:
“… fire of God fell from heaven and burned up the sheep and the servants and consumed them, …
“The Chaldeans formed three groups and made a raid on the camels and took them and struck down the servants with the edge of the sword, …
“a great wind came across the wilderness and struck the four corners of the house, and it fell upon the young people, and your sons and daughters are dead,…
Then Job … said, “Naked I came from my mother's womb, and naked shall I return. The LORD gave, and the LORD has taken away; blessed be the name of the LORD.””
“In all this Job did not sin or charge God with wrong.” (Job 1:16-22)
How can Job ascribe these means of “taking away” to the LORD and it not be a “sin” or be considered “charging God with wrong”…
but if a Calvinist declared “the LORD has taken away” by these same means then the Non-Calvinists would say “you sin and charge God with wrong”?
What’s the difference?🤷🏻♂️
…
The Lord did not take away Job's libertarianism. The Calvinist isn't wrong here because God didn't predetermine Job to sin.