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As most of you are aware, we had a crash to forums and were down for over two days a while back. We did have to do an upgrade to the vbulletin software to fix the forums and that has created changes, VB no longer provide the hybrid or threaded forums. There are some issues/changes to the forums we are not able to fix or change. Also note the link address change, please let friends and posters know of the changed link to the forums. For now this is the only link available, https://forums.carm.org/vb5/ but if clicking on forum on carm.org homepage it will now send you to this link. (edited to add https: now working.

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Diane S
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glossolalia language research

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  • “All Biblical references to “tongues” reference real languages”

    Real languages no one understands?


    I don’t think you’re getting what I mean –

    Yes, Biblical “tongues” are real languages. As far as “real languages no one understands”, you have to look at a given passage in context.

    As an example, if I attend a worship service in East Haystack, Alabama two things are going to be evident: one; there’s only going to be so many people at that service (i.e. there will be a finite given amount of people there, say 50) and two; the chances that anyone in East Haystack speaks anything but English is pretty slim to nil. If I start praying aloud in Lithuanian, there’s no one at that service that’s going to understand a bloody word I’m saying. Even though I’m speaking a real language, no one there will understand my “tongue”. That does not mean or imply that no one else understands Lithuanian; just no one at that particular service. So it ends up being a “real language no one understands” (within that given context).

    This is what is meant with reference to Biblical tongues being real languages that are not understood by the hearers; the ‘hearers’ at that particular time and place and in that particular situation. As in the example above, it does not imply or assume that the speaker’s language is “unknown” elsewhere; thus, the result (in a given context) is a real language no one understands.

    Comment


    • Oy, again with the punctuation! This posting program does not seem to like apostrophes; it deleted all of them in the above post. Excuse the punctuation errors - they are not mine.

      Comment


      • For he who speaks in a tongue
        does not speak to men but to God,
        for no one understands him
        (1 Co 14:2).

        Originally posted by Kavik View Post
        “All Biblical references to “tongues” reference real languages”

        I don’t think you’re getting what I mean –

        Yes, Biblical “tongues” are real languages.
        The Lord Jesus Christ Himself states that NO ONE UNDERSTANDS



        EXCEPT YOU and LUKE.
        Now you have my attention.

        Who do you think you are to oppose God and His apostle Paul?

        Comment


        • Again, you're not finishing the sentence......no one understands HIM.

          It's pretty straightforward - he understands what he's saying (it's his native language) and so does/will anyone else who speaks his language (call it "language X"). If however, he's at a public worship where no one there happens to speak language X, then "no one understands (him)".

          Comment


          • For he who speaks in a tongue
            does not speak to men but to God,
            for no one understands him
            (1 Co 14:2).

            Originally posted by Kavik View Post

            It's pretty straightforward - he understands what he's saying (it's his native language)
            For he who speaks in a tongue
            does not speak to men but to God,
            for no one understands him
            (1 Co 14:2).

            Comment

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