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Why theos has no definite article in John 1:1 & why the NWT rendering is in error.

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  • Why theos has no definite article in John 1:1 & why the NWT rendering is in error.

    Why theos has no definite article in John 1:1 and why the New World Translation rendering is in error.

    There are three general rules we need to understand to see why.
    • In Greek, word order does not determine word usage like it does in English. In English, a sentence is structured according to word order: Subject - Verb - Object. Thus, "Harry called the dog" is not equivalent to "the dog called Harry." But in Greek, a word's function is determined by the case ending found attached to the word's root. There are two case endings for the root theo: one is -s (theos), the other is -n (theon). The -s ending normally identifies a noun as being the subject of a sentence, while the -n ending normally identifies a noun as the direct object.
    • When a noun functions as a predicate nominative (in English, a noun that follows a being verb such as "is"), its case ending must match the noun's case that it renames, so that the reader will know which noun it is defining. Therefore, theo must take the -s ending because it is renaming logos. Therefore, John 1:1 transliterates to "kai theos en ho logos." Is theos the subject, or is logos? Both have the -s ending. The answer is found in the next rule.
    • In cases where two nouns appear, and both take the same case ending, the author will often add the definite article to the word that is the subject in order to avoid confusion. John put the definite article on logos (“the Word”) instead of on theos. So, logos is the subject, and theos is the predicate nominative. In English, this results in John 1:1 being read as "and the Word was God" (instead of "and God was the word").
    The most revealing evidence of the Watchtower's bias is their inconsistent translation technique. Throughout the Gospel of John, the Greek word theon occurs without a definite article. The New World Translation renders none of these as “a god.” Just three verses after John 1:1, the New World Translation translates another case of theos without the indefinite article as "God." Even more inconsistent, in John 1:18, the NWT translates the same term as both "God" and "god" in the very same sentence.

    The only translation interpreting John 1:1 in the way that Jehovah’s Witnesses interpret it is, in fact, the lone New World Translation offered by the Jehovah’s Witnesses. Why shouldn’t we trust the multitude of historic translations?

  • #2
    We need some Stupendous Jehovah Witness to give their wisdom

    Comment


    • #3
      Originally posted by Paisios View Post
      Why theos has no definite article in John 1:1 and why the New World Translation rendering is in error.

      There are three general rules we need to understand to see why.
      • In Greek, word order does not determine word usage like it does in English. In English, a sentence is structured according to word order: Subject - Verb - Object. Thus, "Harry called the dog" is not equivalent to "the dog called Harry." But in Greek, a word's function is determined by the case ending found attached to the word's root. There are two case endings for the root theo: one is -s (theos), the other is -n (theon). The -s ending normally identifies a noun as being the subject of a sentence, while the -n ending normally identifies a noun as the direct object.
      • When a noun functions as a predicate nominative (in English, a noun that follows a being verb such as "is"), its case ending must match the noun's case that it renames, so that the reader will know which noun it is defining. Therefore, theo must take the -s ending because it is renaming logos. Therefore, John 1:1 transliterates to "kai theos en ho logos." Is theos the subject, or is logos? Both have the -s ending. The answer is found in the next rule.
      • In cases where two nouns appear, and both take the same case ending, the author will often add the definite article to the word that is the subject in order to avoid confusion. John put the definite article on logos (“the Word”) instead of on theos. So, logos is the subject, and theos is the predicate nominative. In English, this results in John 1:1 being read as "and the Word was God" (instead of "and God was the word").
      The most revealing evidence of the Watchtower's bias is their inconsistent translation technique. Throughout the Gospel of John, the Greek word theon occurs without a definite article. The New World Translation renders none of these as “a god.” Just three verses after John 1:1, the New World Translation translates another case of theos without the indefinite article as "God." Even more inconsistent, in John 1:18, the NWT translates the same term as both "God" and "god" in the very same sentence.

      The only translation interpreting John 1:1 in the way that Jehovah’s Witnesses interpret it is, in fact, the lone New World Translation offered by the Jehovah’s Witnesses. Why shouldn’t we trust the multitude of historic translations?


      What excuse, I hope you post, for the contrast of~
      "theos was with the theos"?
      We UNDERSTAND your view, since you are polytheist (One God was with ANOTHER God).
      "You MUST worship Him in spirit and in TRUTH!" - Jesus, John 4:24

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      • #4
        And don't forget "no man has seen God", and God SENT "His only-begoitten son"....
        "You MUST worship Him in spirit and in TRUTH!" - Jesus, John 4:24

        Comment


        • #5
          That Koine Greek is so ancient, that even the Greek scholars argue back and forth as to how scriptures like this should read- and, if churchoid, will try, as above, to bend it to support their Triune Polytheism.

          For after all, if the Word (Jesus) is literally God- that REALLY DOES mean one God was WITH another God.
          (And no nameless God-Ghost is even mentioned!)
          "You MUST worship Him in spirit and in TRUTH!" - Jesus, John 4:24

          Comment

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