Jesus was able to send the Holy Spirit in the OT, because he was in heaven (not that you concede it).Was that in the Old Testament?
Jesus was able to send the Holy Spirit in the OT, because he was in heaven (not that you concede it).Was that in the Old Testament?
Jesus was able to send the Holy Spirit in the OT, because he was in heaven (not that you concede it).
Billions would disagree with you. Your cult is so insignificant in numerical terms, and hardly known outside of the USA/UK and remote parts of Eastern Europe, that it scarcely warrants consideration.Your imaginations and not Scripture.
He wasn't, just because men had chosen sin rather than God.And your comment ignores the prophesy that God promised to pour out His Spirit. Not much point in that if He was already doing it.
Billions would disagree with you.
Your cult is so insignificant in numerical terms, and hardly known outside of the USA/UK and remote parts of Eastern Europe, that it scarcely warrants consideration.
He wasn't, just because men had chosen sin rather than God.
Obviously you have the same difficulties with the Son of God concept as Islam.Is that all you are worried about? What about all those Muslims and Hindus who disagree with you?
So what? How does that affect anything I said?You aren't making any sense. God poured out His Spirit on all flesh at Pentecost. This wasn't something old but something new.
Obviously you have the same difficulties with the Son of God concept as Islam.
So what? How does that affect anything I said?
God poured out his Spirit on all men, meaning men from all nations, and also meaning only Jesus's menservants and maidservants (that was a new thing):Do you need to read your own posts again?
God poured out his Spirit on all men, meaning men from all nations, and also meaning only Jesus's menservants and maidservants (that was a new thing):
BTW, they didn't believe what you believe:
Acts 2:25 "David says about Him (i.e. Jesus):
‘I sawf the Lord always before me;because He is at my right hand, I will not be shaken.26Therefore my heart is glad and my tongue rejoices;my body also will dwell in hope,27because You will not abandon my soul to Hades,nor will You let Your Holy One see decay.28You have made known to me the paths of life;You will fill me with joy in Your presence.’gDon't know how you socinians can have the impudence to deny Christ's prior existence in heaven, as vouched for by all the apostles.
Note the similarity between Thomas's confession in John 20:28 "My Lord and My God" and David's use of "My God" and "My Lord" in Ps 16:1,2 followed by the prophecy re Christ.And what pray tell does Acts 2:25 have to do with pre-existence?
Note the similarity between Thomas's confession in John 20:28 "My Lord and My God" and David's use of "My God" and "My Lord" in Ps 16:1,2 followed by the prophecy re Christ.
No, Thomas was refusing to believe in Jesus's resurrection at John 20:28. Upon belief, he made the same confession to Jesus as David had formerly made to YHWH.According to Jesus, Thomas saw the Father at John 20:28. But do you believe him?
No, Thomas was refusing to believe in Jesus's resurrection at John 20:28. Upon belief, he made the same confession to Jesus as David had formerly made to YHWH.
Thomas was speaking only to Jesus, and not to the Father, although the confession included an acknowledgement of the Father in Jesus. By his confession he was also acknowledging Jesus's prior association with YHWH in heaven, per the words of the Psalm.No, the whole account is about seeing and believing and Thomas confessed exactly what Jesus taught him at John 14:9, "He who has seen me has seen the Father."
Thomas was speaking only to Jesus,
and not to the Father, although the confession included an acknowledgement of the Father in Jesus.
By his confession he was also acknowledging Jesus's prior association with YHWH in heaven, per the words of the Psalm.
Of course, he meant in a spiritual sense.Well DUH!
"He who has seen ME has seen the Father."
By the Holy Spirit, and also in purpose and in respect of God's kingdom.Oh, how so?
Because he was using the very same words that David used: "My Lord and My God."Because you imagined it to be so?
Of course, he meant in a spiritual sense.
People don't address God except by way of prayer. Unless you can prove Thomas was praying to the Father, then he was speaking only to Jesus.
By the Holy Spirit, and also in purpose and in respect of God's kingdom.
Because he was using the very same words that David used: "My Lord and My God."
As you have more in common with muslims than with Christians, I guess there is no hope of a rational dialogue.Now you are fabricating.
Do tell, "How can you say, "Show us the Father"? Do you not believe?"
More fabrication on your part.
In what sense as Thomas acknowledging the Father at 20:28? Where do you see this in that verse? Hmmm?
And so you ignore the teaching of Jesus and run with your imaginations that Thomas was thinking about a Psalm of David? Do I have that about right?
If so, there's no hope of a rational dialogue here is there?
As you have more in common with muslims than with Christians, I guess there is no hope of a rational dialogue.
I think your predicament is infinitely worse. As Paul said: "So we fix our eyes not on what is seen, but on what is unseen, since what is seen is temporary, but what is unseen is eternal." 2 Cor 4:18.First you fabricate over and over again, and now you tickle your itching ears and tell yourself whatever you fleshly desires want to hear.
You are in bad shape. You should do something about it.
I think your predicament is infinitely worse. As Paul said: "So we fix our eyes not on what is seen, but on what is unseen, since what is seen is temporary, but what is unseen is eternal." 2 Cor 4:18.
And what is this unseen eternal? Heb 12:2 "Let us fix our eyes on Jesus, the author and perfecter of our faith...."
"...... the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End..." (Rev 22:13).
I wonder what it is that you fix your eyes upon? Probably your imaginary superior gnosis.