You misinterpreted me and I corrected you. YHWH is never plural. I argued that the same addressee was found in verse 4 where Abraham was speaking to all three men.
Your post#
It is noted in the manuscripts where the change was made by copyists.
The
Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia, R Kittel, 1984 Margin at verse Gen 18:3 has a Masoretic note with the Hebrew letters Koph Lamed Dalet (134) indicating the first of 134 instances where pre-Masoretic copyists removed the name YHWH from the Hebrew text, replacing it with the word Lord.
And so:
Gn 18:3 Then he said: "YHWH, if, now, I have found favor in Y'all's [**] eyes, please do not pass by Y'all's [**] servant. [Y'all's indicates plural possessive addressees] Masorite changed from YHWH to Adonay. [**] nouns marked with second person plural suffixes in alternate readings.
Also see:
Brown Driver Briggs Hebrew Lexicon, page 11b
a. my Lord ... (Sam. YHWH) elsewhere in Hex, J;
Gn 18 [3(?).27.30.31.32 19.2.18(?)
Your post #137
The alternate translation in the footnote of BHS does translate to Abraham saying to the LORD YHWH y'alls eyes which means Abraham is speaking to more than one person.
That means the LORD is more than one person. And that's not even considering the BHS reading for YHWH.
But does that matter now? It refutes your assertion that the LORD could be Jesus.
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Is the following true?
[Y'all's indicates plural possessive addressees]
Genesis 18:3
Your =אַתָּה= pronoun, suffixed, second person, masculine, singular
Sight = עֵינֶ֔י = noun, common, dual, construct
Your =אַתָּה= pronoun, suffixed, second person, masculine, singular
Servant = noun, common, singular, construct
In 18:3 every noun, pronoun, and verb is singular. Sight is dual. Nothing in the verse hints at 'plural possessive addressees'.
18:4 We find plurality.
vs 4 Your = אַתֶּם = pronoun, suffixed, second person, masculine, plural = 'you all'
vs 4 Feet = רֶ֫גֶל =noun, common, dual, construct
vs 4 'wash' and 'rest' are plural verbs.
Hebrew, grammatical rules state that the noun should agree with the verb in gender and number.
If Abraham is addressing the same person or persons in both verse 3 and 4, then the verbs in verses 3 and 4 should either be singular or plural. Why is verse 3 singular and verse 4 plural? Abraham is addressing one individual in verse 3 and three individuals in verse 4. It's that simple. Moses is recording simple hospitality.
Be it Adonai or YHWH in verse 3 it does not contradict my original statement that Abraham was addressing Jesus.
However recently I found Gen 19:18 which is the smoking gun. There Abraham is speaking to the 2 angels.
Ginsburg tags this as YHWH.
NET says of it and Gen 18:3 that's it's likely an address to God.
The BHS critical edition has a similar footnote, 18 a prp אֵלָיו || b prp י—ִ
I will do your homework again. ----Homework = test your ideas before you post them.
Then Lot said to them, “Please, no, my lords!
How is this the smoking gun?
Notice
18:22 Then the men turned away from there and went toward Sodom, but Abraham still stood before the Lord [YHWH].
Moses is differentiating between YHWH and the other two angels.
And if that is the case Lot could only be addressing the two angels as Adonia
19:2 And he said, “Here now, my lords [adonia]...
19:13 For we will destroy this place, because the outcry against them has grown great before the face of the Lord [YHWH], and the Lord {YWHW} has sent us to destroy it.”
18 Then Lot said to them, “Please, no, my lords! [Adonia]
Notice 19:13 the angels state that YHWH sent them, and the outcry against the city has grown great before the face of YHWH. Simple, the angles are stating that they are not YHWH, for if they were YHWH or any manifestation or what have you, it would read something similar to.
"For we will destroy this place, because the outcry against them has grown great before our face and we came to destroy it.”
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