Each nature remains distinct.

[Yahchristian]

DesiringGod says...

There are five main truths with which the creed of Chalcedon summarized the biblical teaching on the Incarnation:

1. Jesus has two natures — He is God and man.
2. Each nature is full and complete — He is fully God and fully man.
3. Each nature remains distinct.
4. Christ is only one Person.
5. Things that are true of only one nature are nonetheless true of the Person of Christ.

John 8:28... Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

TRINITARIANS, since you say Jesus' two natures are distinct...

1) Does "I" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

2) Does "my" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

3) Does "me" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?


P.S.

Contrary to Trinitarians, I believe there is ONLY ONE transcendent omniscient Person, YHWH (GOD).

Here is a summary of what I believe...

GOD is spirit and is the only one who is eternal. GOD is also in the universe as spirit and as a human. GOD in the universe as spirit is called the Spirit of God, GOD in the universe as a human is called the Son of God, and eternal GOD is called God the Father.

 

[Yahchristian]

TRINITARIANS, since you say Jesus' two natures are distinct...

1) Does "I" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

2) Does "my" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

3) Does "me" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

John 8:28... Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

 

[johnny guitar]

1) Does "I" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

2) Does "my" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

3) Does "me" in John 8:28 refer to Jesus fully God, or to Jesus fully man, or to both?

John 8:28... Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

As God.
Next question........................

 

[Dizerner]

I'd say both for all.

Now does the "I" in John 8:28 refer to the Person who is the Father or only to his Son-mode or both?

 

[Dizerner]

IS THERE ANY MODALIST WHO CAN EVEN ANSWER MY QUESTION.

Now does the "I" in John 8:28 refer to the Person who is the Father or only to his Son-mode or both?

 

[Yahchristian]

IS THERE ANY MODALIST WHO CAN EVEN ANSWER MY QUESTION.

Now does the "I" in John 8:28 refer to the Person who is the Father or only to his Son-mode or both?

I gave my answer in the OP...

“I” in John 8:28 refers to YHWH (GOD) in the universe as a human.

I believe there is ONLY ONE transcendent omniscient Person, YHWH (GOD).

Here is a summary of what I believe...

GOD is spirit and is the only one who is eternal. GOD is also in the universe as spirit and as a human. GOD in the universe as spirit is called the Spirit of God, GOD in the universe as a human is called the Son of God, and eternal GOD is called God the Father.

YAHCHRISTIANS...

Did the Father teach “YHWH (GOD) in the universe as a human”?

Yes.

TRINITARIANS...

Did the Father teach “Jesus fully God”?

John 8:28... Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

 

[Dizerner]

I gave my answer in the OP...

Wow.

So you can't just answer a direct question yet you reprimand Trinitarians and expect them to?

Is YHWH (GOD) in the universe as a human the same person as the person of the Father?

Then this verse reads to you:

Then YHWH (GOD) said to them, "When you lift up the YHWH (GOD), then you will know that YHWH (GOD) is He, and that YHWH (GOD) does nothing of YHWH (GOD); but as YHWH (GOD) taught YHWH (GOD), YHWH (GOD) speaks these things. (Jn. 8:28 NKJ)

Do you think that makes good sense?

 

[Yahchristian]

Wow.

So you can't just answer a direct question yet you reprimand Trinitarians and expect them to?

Ummm... I DID answer the question...

“I” in John 8:28 refers to YHWH (GOD) in the universe as a human.

However, YOU have yet to answer my question...

Did the Father teach “Jesus fully God”?

John 8:28... Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.

 

[Yahchristian]

Is YHWH (GOD) in the universe as a human the same person as the person of the Father?

Yes, though not how I would phrase it.

John 14:9... Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?

Then this verse reads to you:

Then YHWH (GOD) said to them, "When you lift up the YHWH (GOD), then you will know that YHWH (GOD) is He, and that YHWH (GOD) does nothing of YHWH (GOD); but as YHWH (GOD) taught YHWH (GOD), YHWH (GOD) speaks these things. (Jn. 8:28 NKJ)

Do you think that makes good sense?

Yes.

Which of the highlighted texts are you saying DO NOT refer to YHWH (GOD)?

John 8:28... Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.