Question about biblical Greek

[KenM]

Were personal pronouns ever used to refer to non-personal things like an impersonal force or a nature of a person?

 

[SkullKrusher]

Would have to mull that over, but I don't think so. There are personifications & metaphors throughout Scripture, for example the personification of Wisdom in Proverbs, etc. But the notion of an 'impersonal force' is quite foreign to Scripture, and really to all (well,.most) of ANE culture, so it isn't something most ancient writers would have even grasped, especially biblical writers.

 

[Stephen]

Were personal pronouns ever used to refer to non-personal things like an impersonal force or a nature of a person?

Not a greek expert, but I don't know that there definitely is one.

I think "houtos" is as close as you are going to get. https://biblehub.com/greek/3778.htm Compare the translations of John 1:2. The "Word" is gender neutral or masculine depending on the translation.

See also "Greek Grammar and the personality of the holy spirit' by Daniel Wallace. As he explains that the masculine pronouns associated with the holy spirit don't indicate personality in the holy spirit. https://www.jstor.org/stable/26422781

The question is better suited for the biblical languages forum though.

 

[GeneZ]

Were personal pronouns ever used to refer to non-personal things like an impersonal force or a nature of a person?

Why do you ask? Any example of what is on your mind?

In English we can certainly use such language...

As in a child's story... Mr. Sunshine. He shall surely brighten your day!