John 5:19 - Is Jesus limited to what the Father does?

Not according to scripture. The Apostle John said very clearly that anyone who deliberately and willfully commits sin is not a believer.
1Jn 3:8 He that commits sin is of the devil; for the devil sins from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remains in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
The original Greek conveys the meaning of a willful, deliberate and continuous sin. No real Christian chooses to willfully continue in sin. That indicates there has been no genuine repentance. While a Christian can fall as the result of the weakness of the flesh he is restored through repentance. Again, we will know them by their fruits.
restored to What?
 
Last edited:
They food barrier between the Gentiles who could eat anything and the Jews who could not was removed by God so the Jews could be free to go to the Gentiles. There are precedents for God contradicting His own law for His purposes in the Tanakh.
No contradictions. Temporary leniencies with the intent to return to full observance.

You are mis-interpreting Acts 15. The Gentiles are brought into the fold through faith in Jesus' atonement for sin and HIs resurrection. The only laws they were taught to follow initially is not eating things sacrificed to idols, fornication, and eating with the blood. The rest they would pick up as they went along. The Tanakh was used as a guide for righteousness, not the means of salvation because they was accomplished by Jesus alone.
Wrong. The intent was for gentiles to be fully grafted. One law for the native and stranger.
 
You just show that you don't understand John 20:17. Jesus' Spirit is always God's omnipresent Spirit and is still in heaven and everywhere even when Jesus was resurrected.
Wrong. Jesus' words contradict you. If he's with the Father, he doesn't have to go to Him. ;)
 
The New Covenant was given to the Jews first for the purpose of giving them the opportunity to give it to the Gentiles. You have to co-ordinate scripture. It was prophesied that the Messiah would bring in the Gentiles.
Zechariah 8:23 Salvation is of the Jews. ;)
 
The New Covenant was given to the Jews first for the purpose of giving them the opportunity to give it to the Gentiles. You have to co-ordinate scripture. It was prophesied that the Messiah would bring in the Gentiles.
You are missing the point. The New Covenant, which hasn't happened yet, will be given ONLY to Jews.
 
Not according to scripture. The Apostle John said very clearly that anyone who deliberately and willfully commits sin is not a believer.
1Jn 3:8 He that commits sin is of the devil; for the devil sins from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remains in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
The original Greek conveys the meaning of a willful, deliberate and continuous sin. No real Christian chooses to willfully continue in sin. That indicates there has been no genuine repentance. While a Christian can fall as the result of the weakness of the flesh he is restored through repentance. Again, we will know them by their fruits.
Sorry but you are mistaken. The core beliefs of Christianity are a belief in the messiah-ship of Jesus and the atonement. If you don't believe those, you are not a Christian. If you do believe those, you are a Christian, even if you are a serial killer.
 
pfft
you said it is Fiction
I do not think it is fiction that Jews exist and that we are a covenant people. What I have said is that there are portions of the bible that are mythic or legend or parables, and that we still believe the lessons taught in these stories.

So were you lying when you said it is fiction? Or do you really think it is ficiton?
 
Back
Top