Yahchristian
Well-known member
I would like to hear from EVERY TRINITARIAN on this forum…
1) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ knowledge?
2) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ identity?
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Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ identity?
- Thread starter Yahchristian
- Start date
I would like to hear from EVERY TRINITARIAN on this forum…
1) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ knowledge?
2) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ identity?
I would like to hear from EVERY TRINITARIAN on this forum…
1) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ knowledge?
2) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ identity?
Maybe you should answer my question I asked in that post first. ...
Yes.
Do you believe Jesus is 100% human?
Do you believe Jesus is 100% God?
Yahchristian
Well-known member
Do you believe Jesus is 100% human?
Yes, the man Christ Jesus. (1 Timothy 2:5)
Do you believe Jesus is 100% God?
No, in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. (Colossians 2:9)
I asked two questions, could you please post two answers…
1) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ KNOWLEDGE?
2) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ IDENTITY?
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johnny guitar
Well-known member
ALL the fullness of the Godhead BODILY????Yes, the man Christ Jesus. (1 Timothy 2:5)
No, in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. (Colossians 2:9)
I asked two questions, could you please post two answers…
1) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ KNOWLEDGE?
2) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ IDENTITY?
Wow! He is God.
Yes, the man Christ Jesus. (1 Timothy 2:5)
No, in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. (Colossians 2:9)
So Jesus is not God but comparable to an immeasurably Spirit filled Christian/non-deity?
That sounds more like Unitarianism or perhaps Nestorianism.
I asked two questions, could you please post two answers…
1) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ KNOWLEDGE?
2) Does Jesus being 100% God and 100% human affect or divide Jesus’ IDENTITY?
As I answered Yes to the original combined questions, so both of these are Yes too.
Jesus experienced both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time in one divine person ie the Word. He was not God and a non-God human conjoined.
His non-omniscient identity was totally human and Son of David starting from the experiences as a human baby born of Mary. However He did have the nurturing of the Holy Spirit to influence who He was.
He is not divided into a God and a non-God in one as is your view. That is the view of many of the Oneness. That is the Nestorian Oneness.
The other view is Modalism where God self imposed Himself such that the Father and Son don't experience that they are each other.
Yahchristian
Well-known member
So Jesus is not God but comparable to an immeasurably Spirit filled Christian/non-deity?
Jesus is God INCARNATE.
Whereas God CREATED a human spiritual soul for each of us, God MANIFESTED as the spiritual soul of Jesus.
Jesus is God INCARNATE.
Whereas God CREATED a human spiritual soul for each of us, God MANIFESTED as the spiritual soul of Jesus.
Jesus is the Word under the influence of the created non-omniscient human senses/soul, ie the hypostatic union.
Other humans have a created human soul with a created spiritual human awareness.
Is the manifest/God spiritual soul non-omniscient?
Yahchristian
Well-known member
Is the manifest/God spiritual soul non-omniscient?
God manifest as the human spiritual soul of Jesus is non-omniscient.
P.S.
I am curious...
TRINITARIANS in the past would likely have burned me at the stake...
But are you aware that TRINITARIANS in the past might have burned YOU at the stake for saying the 100% God the Word was under the influence of the 100% man Jesus?
A DIVINE mind/will "under the influence" of a HUMAN mind/will ???
Jesus is the Word under the influence of the created non-omniscient human senses/soul, ie the hypostatic union.
You should read what Servetus wrote that got him burned at the stake.
IMO, what Servetus wrote is no more non-orthodox Trinitarian than what you write at times.
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God manifest as the human spiritual soul of Jesus is non-omniscient.
Was the Father also not omniscient of experiencing being the Son?
P.S.
I am curious...
TRINITARIANS in the past would likely have burned me at the stake...
But are you aware that TRINITARIANS in the past might have burned YOU at the stake for saying the 100% God the Word was under the influence of the 100% man Jesus?
A DIVINE mind/will "under the influence" of a HUMAN mind/will ???
Maybe. But it is an offtake off of orthodox church doctrine ...
Catholic Encyclopedia
Communication Idiomatum
" the properties of the Divine Word can be ascribed to the man Christ, ...
and that the properties of the man Christ can be predicated of the Word. ...
The language of Scripture and of the Fathers shows that such a mutual interexchange of predicates is legitimate "
m
You should read what Servetus wrote that got him burned at the stake.
IMO, what Servetus wrote is no more non-orthodox Trinitarian than what you write at times.
That's what happens when religion gets too much political power.
johnny guitar
Well-known member
New age trash. God manifested as A MAN, NOT a soul.Jesus is God INCARNATE.
Whereas God CREATED a human spiritual soul for each of us, God MANIFESTED as the spiritual soul of Jesus.