Jewjitzu
Well-known member
You're a scholar in what respect to ancient languages?The purpose to look at a hieroglyphic text when deemed needed by a scholar to do so
is not to follow that texts beliefs. There is nothing wrong with studying the etymology of
a term or cluster of terms as to their provenance.
For example, I've been trying to tell other christians here that the greek meaning of soul, as psuche
is not the meaning in genesis and prophets.
In hebrew the term means one undivided being. Soul and body being the same term in either case.
In greek, a metaphysical object is presented of a spirit plus a body, a chimera basically.
This is a huge problem and affects every bit of theology. No one cares.
In addition, His spirit is always referred as feminine in Hebrew. And in fact, the literature
shows the feminine connotation is not merely grammatical. The Greek obscured and altered this.
But the hebrew must always take precedence and is the LEGAL basis for the new testament. Without it, the NT
has NO legal right. Some christian groups discard all they can of the hebrew scriptures and prophets.
I do not.
I had written this before seeing your post. Yes, I am a scholar, retired now. I taught ancients mostly but for undergraduates, history of philosophy.
I can find some for you that have a negative root.
Negative because that is one way that scripture denotes God's enemy.
Certain words in prophets are used most often to refer to the enemy, and never refer to God's people.
The hebrew words used to discuss the enemy will have some etymology differences, such that even if you
do not specifically say 'he is the enemy' it will be obvious from the etymology that the roots indicate such.
Some scholars have ignored this and some of this has resulted in all sorts of backwards meanings. (Look around these forums.)
So yes, If I see that a term has a root that may be negative (non-hebrew) I become alert, as that adds
nuance to what scripture says.