Is this verse referring to Jesus Christ's God?

Our Lord's God said:
There are two Lords in Psalm 110:1 which actually reads, "YHWH said to my Lord."

The Bible says David was Lord of Israel. He wasn't God either.

The LORD our God at Deuteronomy 6:4 is the God of Jesus.

Honest rational minds know this is an inescapable fact.
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David was NEVER Lord of Israel; ONLY God was/is.
 
johnny guitar said:
The name Jesus ALWAYS refers to The MAN.
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I agree!

But I don’t think most Trinitarians will agree with us.

So just to clarify your Trinitarian view...

Does the name Jesus in Matthew 16:17 refer to The Man?

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

I ask because you have often said Jesus The Man does not have a father.
 
Yahchristian said:
I agree!

But I don’t think most Trinitarians will agree with us.

So just to clarify your Trinitarian view...

Does the name Jesus in Matthew 16:17 refer to The Man?

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

I ask because you have often said Jesus The Man does not have a father.
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Matthew 16:17 clearly refers to Jesus Christ, The Son of God who DOES have a Father.
 
101G said:
ERROR, and ERROR. there is only one Lord in Psalms 110. the Lord in verse 1 is the same Lord in verse 5. and the Lord at verse 5 is the emphatic form of H113.
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.

your two Lords is reproved, so try again

:ninja:
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You need to learn how to read.

The LORD said to my Lord. Psalm 110:1

Can you count?
 
Our Lord's God said:
You need to learn how to read.

The LORD said to my Lord. Psalm 110:1

Can you count?
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yes, I, and we can count but the question is can U? lets see if u can count. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last;(Lord), I am he." now this, the first is "WITH" the Last, as in John 1:1 the Word, (Son), was "WITH" God. so tell us is this two persons, the First "WITH" the Lat or one person, so count them and get back with us.

:ninja:
 
Yahchristian said:
Does the name Jesus in Matthew 16:17 refer to The Man?

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.
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johnny guitar said:
Matthew 16:17 clearly refers to Jesus Christ, The Son of God who DOES have a Father.
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Now wait a minute. :)

You had previously said...

johnny guitar said:
The name Jesus ALWAYS refers to The MAN.
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So just to clarify your various statements...

1) Was Jesus Christ the MAN speaking in Matthew 16:17?

2) Was Jesus Christ the Son of God speaking in Matthew 16:17?
 
johnny guitar said:
When Jesus' lips were moving The Son of God was speaking.
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Okay, but when Jesus' lips were moving was Jesus the MAN speaking?

Here is the context...

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

So in that verse...

1) Was Jesus the MAN's lips moving?

2) Was Jesus the MAN speaking?

In your previous posts it seems you were implying 1=Yes but 2=No.

I would appreciate if you to confirm that.
 
Yahchristian said:
Okay, but when Jesus' lips were moving was Jesus the MAN speaking?

Here is the context...

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

So in that verse...

1) Was Jesus the MAN's lips moving?

2) Was Jesus the MAN speaking?

In your previous posts it seems you were implying 1=Yes but 2=No.

I would appreciate if you to confirm that.
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In this passage Jesus The Son of God ONLY was speaking.
 
johnny guitar said:
When Jesus' lips were moving The Son of God was speaking.
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Yahchristian said:
Okay, but when Jesus' lips were moving was Jesus the MAN speaking?

Here is the context...

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.
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johnny guitar said:
In this passage Jesus The Son of God ONLY was speaking.
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Let me get this straight.

According to your Trinitarian view...

The Son of God ONLY was speaking in Matthew 16:17. The lips of Jesus the man were moving but Jesus the man was NOT speaking.

Is that what you believe?
 
Yahchristian said:
Let me get this straight.

According to your Trinitarian view...

The Son of God ONLY was speaking in Matthew 16:17. The lips of Jesus the man were moving but Jesus the man was NOT speaking.

Is that what you believe?
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The lips of The Son of God were moving and speaking.
 
johnny guitar said:
The lips of The Son of God were moving and speaking.
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But I wasn't asking about the lips of Jesus the GOD. I was asking about the lips of Jesus the MAN.

1) Were the lips of Jesus the MAN moving in Matthew 16:17?

2) Was Jesus the MAN speaking in Matthew 16:17?

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.
 
Yahchristian said:
But I wasn't asking about the lips of Jesus the GOD. I was asking about the lips of Jesus the MAN.

1) Were the lips of Jesus the MAN moving in Matthew 16:17?

2) Was Jesus the MAN speaking in Matthew 16:17?

Matthew 16:17... And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.
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Jesus The Man was NOT speaking at Matthew 16:17.
Jesus The Son of God was.
 
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