DoctrinesofGraceBapt
Well-known member
The explanation is in John 1:1 where we see the one God who was the Word and the clause "with" which is the Greek word "Pros" indicates towards because God in expression points to God himself and this is one God not two.Note: You still have't explained or really commented at all on the meaning of "I had with thee before the world was"? Do you have an explanation?
Now, how God expresses himself has its own agency which is Gid as a plurality.
Hello, that's the Trinitarian argument. You reject the word person but then define what we mean by person. Let's simply the question. Was there an "I" and a "you", same God, before the world was?
To got into this deeper consider that God is the only self-existent God who is eternal, but God is a plurality within himself.
All that is in God is in the anointed or in Christ which is all of the one Spirit that God is.
All that is in God is the expression of God within God eternally and this is in a Father and Son relationship and includes all that is in Christ. If you ready John chapter 17 carefully you will understand that God as plurality is the glory of God and is the Word which is Christ.
You seriously sound like the Thomas Aquinas explaining the Trinity in Summa Theologicala.
God Bless