Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) NOW?

Yahchristian

Well-known member
Nothing can be The Form/Morph of God, but God

TRINITARIANS, just to clarify your doctrine…

1) Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) NOW?

1 Timothy 2:5… For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

Philippians 2:6… Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

I say YES. If you agree…

2) When was “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) INITIALLY “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6)?

I say the moment Yahweh created the supernatural and spacetime of this universe.
 
TRINITARIANS, just to clarify your doctrine…

1) Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) NOW?

1 Timothy 2:5… For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

Philippians 2:6… Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

I say YES. If you agree…

2) When was “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) INITIALLY “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6)?

I say the moment Yahweh created the supernatural and spacetime of this universe.
The MAN Jesus Christ is in the form of MAN, just as all men are.
 
1) Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) NOW?
The MAN Jesus Christ is in the form of MAN, just as all men are.

Thank you for your honest answer.

But I just want to make sure you noticed my question concerned NOW (as in RIGHT NOW in heaven).

You are saying "the man Christ Jesus" IS NOT "in the form of God" RIGHT NOW in heaven.

Correct?
 
Thank you for your honest answer.

But I just want to make sure you noticed my question concerned NOW (as in RIGHT NOW in heaven).

You are saying "the man Christ Jesus" IS NOT "in the form of God" RIGHT NOW in heaven.

Correct?
Correct. The MAN Christ Jesus is in the form of MAN ONLY.
Next question..................................
 
You are saying "the man Christ Jesus" IS NOT "in the form of God" RIGHT NOW in heaven.

Correct?
Correct. The MAN Christ Jesus is in the form of MAN ONLY.

Thank you for confirming that.

Now I would like to hear from EVERY TRINITARIAN on this forum...

1) Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) RIGHT NOW in heaven?

1 Timothy 2:5… For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

Philippians 2:6… Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

@johnny guitar says NO.

I say YES. If you agree with me…

2) When was “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) INITIALLY “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6)?

I say the moment Yahweh created the supernatural and spacetime of this universe.
 
Thank you for confirming that.

Now I would like to hear from EVERY TRINITARIAN on this forum...

1) Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) RIGHT NOW in heaven?

1 Timothy 2:5… For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

Philippians 2:6… Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

@johnny guitar says NO.

I say YES. If you agree with me…

2) When was “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) INITIALLY “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6)?

I say the moment Yahweh created the supernatural and spacetime of this universe.
2). The Man, Christ was NEVER in the form of God.
 
2). The Man, Christ was NEVER in the form of God.
Phil 2:6 Who [Christ, the man], being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
NIV Who [Christ, the man], being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,

The NIV is better because the KJV implies Christ was equal to God.
 
Phil 2:6 Who [Christ, the man], being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
NIV Who [Christ, the man], being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,

The NIV is better because the KJV implies Christ was equal to God.
The KJV, as well as ALL other Bibles clearly states Christ was equal to God.
Phil 2:6 concerns Christ The Son of God BEFORE He incarnated as Man in Bethlehem.
 
Man is christ because he is anointed of God to have His same mind and walk in it as He walks in it.
And Yet Christ is not just a man, but also The Consubstantial Logos Himself made man . The Hypostasis of The Divine Wisdom. God The Word.

And The Word was with God, and The Word was God, and The Word was made flesh, and made is dwelling among us, and we beheld His glory as of the only Begotten of The Father..

Alan
 
TRINITARIANS, just to clarify your doctrine…

1) Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) NOW?

1 Timothy 2:5… For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

Philippians 2:6… Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

I say YES. If you agree…

2) When was “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) INITIALLY “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6)?

I say the moment Yahweh created the supernatural and spacetime of this universe.

On the contrary, Yachristian your Christological science is as semi Arian as Gary Mac's,yahwillincrease, and any Oneness who erroneously suppose ," The Father is The Spirit ,and the son is the flesh. Oneness and Unitarians alike, half baked Christology'/Theologies , carries the very same" first principle"; Two beings. One Divine/Father and one human/son, in unity and purpose, hence ," Jesus is just a man fully anointed by way of appointment with God's power ". This is clearly demonstrated in your Question and Answer. You ,Oneness, Unitarians ,and some Trinitarians obviously take," God manifest in the flesh, in general, whereas in an ancient sense wherein adequately expressing verities of the divine ," God manifested in the flesh, is taken atomo-ie in an individual. Yachristian perhaps if you anti Trinitarians remove the humanism of conceiving God as eternally thinking, and acting, instead of ever absolute Supremely Being and doing, you guys wouldn't perpetually Affirm what you Deny, and deny what you Affirm, thereby refuting yourself.


I answer that this flesh these bones and this blood is not The Form of God ,but rather in a twofold consideration, The Consubstantial Logos/Word ever Conceived/Generated, wherefore temporally made to the creature, and therefore The only Begotten Son in that particular flesh, those particular bones, and that particular blood is The Form of God.

God is not a man that He should lie, neither is He the son of man that He should repent .

Humanity is not God The Father's Express Image ,and therefore of itself not His Form ,oh but The Substantial Eternal Immaterial Interior Word of God, having temporally taken upon Himself, manhood is The Express Image and Form of God. Since when can Material flesh and bones or a man be God's Immaterial Exact Imprint? Substantively The Divine Nature Subsist uncommingled and unalloyed in a human Suppositum/For in Him dwelleth the fulness of Deity/Godhead bodily. .

Yachristian it is quite clear that like Oneness and Unitarians ,you take the distinction between The Father and The Son to be due to humanity, ,whereas the Apostle John shows the distinction between The Father and The Son is due to God having Word internal within His own Bowels ever Begat Him/Express Image/Form of God".

Lastly, Logos/Word said of God in its proper sense is used Personally ,and in Personalis signifies Form and Image, properly called ever Begotten and rightly called Son.

No man hath seen God at anytime, the only Begotten Son which is in the Bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him.

.......Alan
 
I answer that this flesh these bones and this blood is not The Form of God ,

I am asking about the specific Bible term “the man Christ Jesus” not the phrase “this flesh these bones and this blood”.

And I am asking about RIGHT NOW in heaven.

Is “the man Christ Jesus” (1 Timothy 2:5) “in the form of God” (Philippians 2:6) RIGHT NOW in heaven?

Your fellow TRINITARIAN @johnny guitar says NO. Please post your YES/NO answer.
 
And Yet Christ is not just a man,
Christ is not a man at all but the disposition of man who is anointed of Gods same Spirit of mind. Which would be Christ in you.
but also The Consubstantial Logos Himself made man . The Hypostasis of The Divine Wisdom. God The Word.
Yes His word becoming your own words.
And The Word was with God, and The Word was God, and The Word was made flesh, and made is dwelling among us, and we beheld His glory as of the only Begotten of The Father..
Yes He Who is a Spirit is made to be flesh in us all who has received Him as Jesus did in Matt 3:16.

It is noting new, Adam was the first to lean that same new knowledge as Jesus learned of in Matt 3:16 and became like God to know that same difference between carnality and Spirit. Gen 3:22
 
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