Verses that disprove the trinity.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
I agree with Johnny Guitar. I don't see anything here. Verse after verse, I've read them all, and nothing. Taking Lamentations 4:20 as an example, Lamentations is poetry. It uses figurative language on purpose to communicate concepts. "The breath of our nostrils" obviously relates to that which animates these people, "The precious sons of Zion", that which gives them life, aka the breath of life. It likely also symoolizes that "YHWH’s anointed" is the one giving them spiritual life too. There is nothing that says Christ is a spirit as in the Holy Spirit.

Frankly, I think you are massively oversimplifying Trinitarianism in ways that are not valid. Trinitarians have never said the Holy Spirit is the only person who is spirit. The Holy Spirit is a title used in Scripture to distinguish the third person in the Trinity. That doesn't mean any time "spirit" is used it is necessarily referring to the Holy Spirit. For example in John 4:24, spirit is used to express what God is: God is spirit, not physical.
"God is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth.” On the other hand in John 14:26, spirit is used to name this helper whom the Father will send: "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." While reading Scripture, we allow the particular usage of a word be defined by its context. If you bothered doing so above, you would never even think of posting the above verses as evidence against the Trinity. Maybe, you should treat Scripture with more respect.
DoGB, Romans 8:5-11 uses the terms Holy Spirit, Spirit, Spirit of God, Spirit of Christ, Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead, and importantly "Christ is in you" INTERCHANGEABLY.

While verses like John 14:26 "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." make clear distisutinctions between the Father, Son and Spirit defining them as distinct persons. You must accept all of Scripture; not just run with one interpretation from one passage while ignoring all other passages. Distinction and unity, both/and. That's what Scripture presents. Maybe, you should treat Scripture with more respect.

All are talking about the same Spirit and the fact of the presence of Christ in the believer. That blows your theory up. You certainly don't believe each of the God persons are their own individual Spirits, and you can't believe they are the same Spirit because that would leave you with nothing to distinguish the supposed God persons. The result is that you have a theory that completely breaks down to nothingness as an explanatory tool.

It doesn't blown up my position at all. If the Holy Spirit, the second person of the Trinity, indwells a believer, then all members of the Trinity are in us given they are the same God. FYI, they are the same Spirit ontologically because they are the same God while we admit the Father, Son and Holy Spirit can be distinguished personally because Scripture does it. Unless one want's to propose that the NT is self contradictory, this is the only position possible: both/and.

God Bless
 
If the Holy Spirit, the second person of the Trinity, indwells a believer, then all members of the Trinity are in us given they are the same God.

Just to clarify your Trinitarian view...

Did all members of the Trinity manifest in the flesh?

Given that they are the same God...

1 Timothy 3:16... And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
 
Says the one who doesn't know Greek. Besides, my argument isn't so simplistic as to base my entire argument on the definition of μορφῇ. It's a cumulative argument. Each point proving my case on it's own while reenforcing each other to make a stronger argument. μορφῇ does include in its semantic domain the definition of the essence or substance, especially when contrasted with σχῆμα (v8), and what else can it mean when it is connected to God. In form God means the outward expression of God, the invisible God. You can't make an idol, the everyday use of μορφῇ, of the invisible God. God, being simple, simply is. To have his form means that the one with his form must be fully God.You could play this figurative game if you were talking about a god like Zeus, but we are talking about the form of the God of Scripture. Among every expert in Greek, this is so obvious that the excuses of ignorant people like you are blown off without a second thought given how baseless and ignorant such excuses are.
Sorry but there is nothing in any of what Paul wrote in Philippians 2:5-11 to suggest anything like what you haver been falsely led to believe and teach about it and which makes you seriously responsible before God for it.


You put way to much credit upon academic knowledge but if one seeks and asks and waits upon God for answers to what the scriptures are truly teaching God himself will lead him to whatever source is needed to reveal the truth unto him but he has to diligently trust in God for this while keeping his own thoughts and ideas and also those of others out of the way.

Your way is putting faith in human nature and human effort and which creates pride and arrogance in those who pursue it, while the correct way is putting trust in God for his ability to reveal it and creates truly humility in those who pursue it being they realize that they couldn't have it unless he gives it unto them.

1 Corinthians 4:7 What do you have that you did not receive? And if you did receive it, why do you boast as though you did not?
With respect to ἁρπαγμὸν, this word can be taken in only one of two ways: Jesus either thought it not wrong to actively seize equality with God or did not count equality with God a thing to be held onto. Every meaningful translation I know translates it in one of these two ways. Either way, equality with God is something your human cannot be said to have access to while the text says otherwise.

Nope, but rather "he did not count equality with God something to seized upon while being in the form of God and already having more authority than any other man.

Sorry but your bias trin scholars are wrong about what the word "harpagmos" reveals in this text, for it isn't referring to Jesus holding on to something he already possess like they are falsely teaching about it but it refers to seizing upon something that does not belong to him.

For many Emperors and Kings with way less authority than what Jesus had, let it go to their minds that they were like a god among men and this is what Paul is revealing, that although Jesus was in the form of God and having more authority from God than any other man, he still took no thought to rob God of his glory as being God himself like those other Emperors and kings did.
Lastly, v7 says ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπω νγενόμενος: in likeness/fashion of man was made/born. Any way you look at this phase, Jesus was not a man before this occurred.

Nope, again, you have not proven that the true Greek word for born was used in this text and in the likeness and fashion of man, only means in the likeness and fashion of man and not being made a man.

Again, this has to do with the fact that after Jesus as a man in the form of God took the form of a servant, he was made by this in the likeness and fashion of man, when regarding his unique authority from God, he wasn't like any of them in that regard.
Yeah, that's an argument. You don't know Greek. You don't know the cultural background or history of how these words were used in the first century. Declarations from a position of ignorance prove nothing but hardheadedness of the speaker.

Well then, you go on ahead and trust in your knowledge of Greek and or in those who know it and you are trusting and I will put my trust in God alone to led me into all truth by the Holy Sprit and like were are told in the scriptures that we must in order to truly know the truth and I will see you on the judgment day.

Philosophy: Plato and Aristotle. You can find all sorts of uses where μορφῇ is that which makes something what it is. You can find articles all over the internet, not related to this debate at all, discussing the use of μορφῇ in this way.

And that is why you were unable to present any of them here also.

For either you can't find any or you are taking them to mean what they don't mean and realizing that I will show you that they do not mean what you are saying they mean, one way or the other, your argument here is a worthless as a screen door on a submarine.
Nice job completely ignoring the problems with your excuse. Keep on repeating your narrative. That way you won't have to deal with the uncomfortable feeling of knowing your excuse doesn't hold muster.

Typical conniving here, for you continually accuse me of ignoring this or that and by doing so you are diverting from the fact that it is you in your trin bias false indoctrination who is unable to be honest with the facts of what is being stated in these texts.
Jesus was God and humbled himself to become man. That alone answers this entire response. If your attempt to critique my position doesn't take into consideration my actual position, then it is not but a straw man.

God Bless

So when Paul said "let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus", your human reasoning on this would suggest that he was telling us to become a totally different being than what we were originally like maybe a frog or leopard or something and which none of us can do


Sorry but what Paul is saying about Jesus in Philippians 2:5-8 has absolutely nothing to do with Jesus' essence or substance but rather his high and lofty position of authority from God being in the form of God as a man and therefore in this sense, unlike any other man.
 
Says the one who doesn't know Greek. Besides, my argument isn't so simplistic as to base my entire argument on the definition of μορφῇ. It's a cumulative argument. Each point proving my case on it's own while reenforcing each other to make a stronger argument. μορφῇ does include in its semantic domain the definition of the essence or substance, especially when contrasted with σχῆμα (v8), and what else can it mean when it is connected to God. In form God means the outward expression of God, the invisible God. You can't make an idol, the everyday use of μορφῇ, of the invisible God. God, being simple, simply is. To have his form means that the one with his form must be fully God.You could play this figurative game if you were talking about a god like Zeus, but we are talking about the form of the God of Scripture. Among every expert in Greek, this is so obvious that the excuses of ignorant people like you are blown off without a second thought given how baseless and ignorant such excuses are.

With respect to ἁρπαγμὸν, this word can be taken in only one of two ways: Jesus either thought it not wrong to actively seize equality with God or did not count equality with God a thing to be held onto. Every meaningful translation I know translates it in one of these two ways. Either way, equality with God is something your human cannot be said to have access to while the text says otherwise.

Lastly, v7 says
ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπω νγενόμενος: in likeness/fashion of man was made/born. Any way you look at this phase, Jesus was not a man before this occurred.



Yeah, that's an argument. You don't know Greek. You don't know the cultural background or history of how these words were used in the first century. Declarations from a position of ignorance prove nothing but hardheadedness of the speaker.



Philosophy: Plato and Aristotle. You can find all sorts of uses where
μορφῇ is that which makes something what it is. You can find articles all over the internet, not related to this debate at all, discussing the use of μορφῇ in this way.



Nice job completely ignoring the problems with your excuse. Keep on repeating your narrative. That way you won't have to deal with the uncomfortable feeling of knowing your excuse doesn't hold muster.



Jesus was God and humbled himself to become man. That alone answers this entire response. If your attempt to critique my position doesn't take into consideration my actual position, then it is not but a straw man.


God Bless
By the way, being you want to use "morphe" to mean the outer expression of the inwards essence, Jesus even explained this in John 14:10 from John 14:6-10 below.


Philip asked Jesus "show us the Father and it will be sufficient for us" and you will notice, that he asked for Jesus to show him the Father specifically.

Jesus' answer would almost seem to agree with the oneness group at least until we examine his full explanation of what he was saying as revealed in John 14:10.

Jesus answered him saying "have I been so long with you and still you don't know me, for he who has seen me has seen the Father also".

Now notice his explanation for what he said in verse 10, "do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, the words that I speak, I do not speak for myself but it is the Father within me, he is doing the works".

Very clearly therefore, Jesus was explaining that when he said, "have I been so long with you and yet you still don't know me", it wasn't for him that he spoke this but rather for the Father who was dwelling within him and doing the works that they saw from Jesus.


Therefore, the inner essence that was being manifested through Jesus was The Father and not Jesus and Jesus very clearly revealed this in John 14:6-10 and whether you like it or not, that is the fact of the matter.

Therefore in Philippians 2:6 when Paul says that Jesus was in the form (morphe) of God, that morphe was due to the the fact that the Father was dwelling within the Son and manifesting himself through Jesus and it has nothing whatsoever to do with Jesus himself also being God like you continue to falsely teach.
 
Not certain of your message.

You have Jesus as one of three up in the Godhead. Yet, the Bible teaches the Godhead, the fullness, is in Christ and we are complete in him. Dwelled in him bodily. The fullness of the Godhead tabernacled (John 1:14) among us by the body of the man Jesus Christ. In other words you have the distinction of persons up in heaven, but the distinction the Bible speaks about is between God and his earthly tabernacle. So, you're upside down.
 
Well, why don't you explain it then?

Why in John 16:13-15 did Jesu say that the Holy Spirit would be sent to speak on his behalf, if he was literally going to dwell in every believers hear like you believe he was and is?

1 Corinthians 15:45
So it is written: “The first man Adam became a living being”; the last Adam, a life-giving Spirit.

Ezekiel 37:14
I will put my Spirit in you and you will live, and I will settle you in your own land. Then you will know that I the LORD have spoken, and I have done it, declares the LORD.’”
 
If the Holy Spirit, the second person of the Trinity, indwells a believer, then all members of the Trinity are in us given they are the same God.

Except there is only one Mediator between God and man. Also, only the Son knows the Father, and reveals Him; And don't forget that Christ is the Spirit.

Oops! No trinity.
 
You have Jesus as one of three up in the Godhead. Yet, the Bible teaches the Godhead, the fullness, is in Christ and we are complete in him. Dwelled in him bodily. The fullness of the Godhead tabernacled (John 1:14) among us by the body of the man Jesus Christ. In other words you have the distinction of persons up in heaven, but the distinction the Bible speaks about is between God and his earthly tabernacle. So, you're upside down.
Distinction between God and His earthly tabernacle???
Sorry, but I don't understand.
But the Bible says "All the fullness of the Godhead dwells in him bodily. Colossians 2:9

You sort of have it upside down
Which means Jesus is The God-Man.
 
When Jesus dwells in us, God does as well, which is why Jesus says:

John 14:18-20
18 I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.

19 Yet a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live, ye shall live also.

20 At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.

Jesus is The Comforter, the Mediator.

There is no "third person" "second mediator" who goes between us and God, or between God and Jesus, especially between us and Jesus.
 
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Says the one who doesn't know Greek. Besides, my argument isn't so simplistic...
Sorry but there is nothing in any of what Paul wrote in Philippians 2:5-11 to suggest anything like what you haver been falsely led to believe and teach about it and which makes you seriously responsible before God for it.


You put way to much credit upon academic knowledge but if one seeks and asks and waits upon God for answers to what the scriptures are truly teaching God himself will lead him to whatever source is needed to reveal the truth unto him but he has to diligently trust in God for this while keeping his own thoughts and ideas and also those of others out of the way.

Your way is putting faith in human nature and human effort and which creates pride and arrogance in those who pursue it, while the correct way is putting trust in God for his ability to reveal it and creates truly humility in those who pursue it being they realize that they couldn't have it unless he gives it unto them.

1 Corinthians 4:7 What do you have that you did not receive? And if you did receive it, why do you boast as though you did not?

What a vacuous response. Don't interact with anything the other person said, just assert you are correct and pretend you diligently trust in God while no one else even tries. I'm interacting with how the common Greek speaker in the first century would understand the phrase ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ, while you just declare your correct.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
With respect to ἁρπαγμὸν, ...
Nope, but rather "he did not count equality with God something to seized upon while being in the form of God and already having more authority than any other man.

Interesting retranslation of the verse. When Scripture doesn't teach what you believe, rewrite it from a position of ignorance.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Lastly, v7 says ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπω νγενόμενος: ...
Again, this has to do with the fact that after Jesus as a man in the form of God took the form of a servant, he was made by this in the likeness and fashion of man, when regarding his unique authority from God, he wasn't like any of them in that regard.

What would ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος, in the likeness and fashion of man mean in the first century? Would it mean a king acting like a commoner? Or, would it emphasize what kind of Servant, a human servant? But again, how would you know? It's not like you learned Greek and studies their culture to understand what that idiom meant. You just diligently trusted in God in ways far more than anyone else. It couldn't be that you've been deceived in a way to bolster you're hubris. After all, this isn't the only place were the narrative of one who is God became man is presented in Scripture. You have John 1:1-18; Hebrew 1, Titus 2:13; Genesis 18-19; Genesis 32:22-32; Isaiah 9:6; etc. etc. etc. But, keep on making excuses. Keep on basing your entire position on the certainty of your own conviction. Don't present a reasoned argument from the Scripture that your position is true. Don't dig into the actual language to see if your excuses hold water. Definitely don't humble yourself to interact with the expertise of those who know more than you in a field. That way, you can remain confident in your position while puffing up your ego with respect to knowing so much more than others because after all you more diligently trusted in God. The best argument against your position is how you choose to argue. Those with the goods, stick to the goods and answer challenges directly. Only desperate men who have no real confidence in their position use hubris as their primary argument. Although, I do find it funny to reflect that same hubris back at those who act like this. Because, I have the goods.

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Yeah, that's an argument....
Well then, you go on ahead and trust in your knowledge of Greek and or in those who know it and you are trusting and I will put my trust in God alone to led me into all truth by the Holy Sprit and like were are told in the scriptures that we must in order to truly know the truth and I will see you on the judgment day.

Interesting, I'm not to trust in what the apostles wrote? I'm only suppose to trust in your proclamation justified by how much more diligent you've been in your studies as opposed to mine?

DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Philosophy: Plato and Aristotle....
And that is why you were unable to present any of them here also.

For either you can't find any or you are taking them to mean what they don't mean and realizing that I will show you that they do not mean what you are saying they mean, one way or the other, your argument here is a worthless as a screen door on a submarine.

Interesting, I make an appeal to common knowledge that takes two seconds for you to google, and somehow that shows I'm unable to prove something? I googled Aristotle and morphe and this is the first thing that pops up:
Aristotle famously contends that every physical object is a compound of matter and form. This doctrine has been dubbed “hylomorphism”, a portmanteau of the Greek words for matter (hulê)and form (eidos or morphê)....The word “form” may misleadingly suggest that what is acquired in a case of substantial generation is simply a shape...When we consider organisms, however, it becomes apparent that having the right shape is not sufficient to possess the form. A thing’s form is its definition or essence—what it is to be a human being, for example. A statue may be human-shaped, but it is not a human, because it cannot perform the functions characteristic of humans: thinking, perceiving, moving, desiring, eating and growing, etc.
DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Jesus was God and humbled himself...
So when Paul said "let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus", your human reasoning on this would suggest that he was telling us to become a totally different being than what we were originally like maybe a frog or leopard or something and which none of us can do

Silly person who purposefully jumps back and forth between two topics as to confuse everything. You said in the context of Matthew 28:19 "If Jesus never ceased to be God, then he would never have had to be given all authority in Heaven and Earth either, for he would have already had it from all eternity." I'm answering why he had to be given authority, he emptied himself to become a man. So, my perspective perfectly corresponds to Jesus being given authority in light of my theology, not in light of your truncated straw man.

With respect to Philippians 2:5-11, my reasoning on this suggests that Paul was telling us to have humility like Jesus who humbled himself as to be made in human likeness and die on a cross. If Jesus, being God, can humbly die on the cross for our sins, can we not humble ourselves as to serve him?


God Bless
 
Says the one who doesn't know Greek. Besides, my argument isn't so simplistic as to base my entire argument on the definition of μορφῇ. It's a cumulative argument. Each point proving my case on it's own while reenforcing each other to make a stronger argument. μορφῇ does include in its semantic domain the definition of the essence or substance, especially when contrasted with σχῆμα (v8), and what else can it mean when it is connected to God. In form God means the outward expression of God, the invisible God. You can't make an idol, the everyday use of μορφῇ, of the invisible God. God, being simple, simply is. To have his form means that the one with his form must be fully God.You could play this figurative game if you were talking about a god like Zeus, but we are talking about the form of the God of Scripture. Among every expert in Greek, this is so obvious that the excuses of ignorant people like you are blown off without a second thought given how baseless and ignorant such excuses are....
By the way, being you want to use "morphe" to mean the outer expression of the inwards essence, Jesus even explained this in John 14:10 from John 14:6-10 below.

Philip asked Jesus "show us the Father and it will be sufficient for us" and you will notice, that he asked for Jesus to show him the Father specifically.

Jesus' answer would almost seem to agree with the oneness group at least until we examine his full explanation of what he was saying as revealed in John 14:10.

Jesus answered him saying "have I been so long with you and still you don't know me, for he who has seen me has seen the Father also".

Now notice his explanation for what he said in verse 10, "do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, the words that I speak, I do not speak for myself but it is the Father within me, he is doing the works".

Very clearly therefore, Jesus was explaining that when he said, "have I been so long with you and yet you still don't know me", it wasn't for him that he spoke this but rather for the Father who was dwelling within him and doing the works that they saw from Jesus.

Therefore, the inner essence that was being manifested through Jesus was The Father and not Jesus and Jesus very clearly revealed this in John 14:6-10 and whether you like it or not, that is the fact of the matter.

Therefore in Philippians 2:6 when Paul says that Jesus was in the form (morphe) of God, that morphe was due to the the fact that the Father was dwelling within the Son and manifesting himself through Jesus and it has nothing whatsoever to do with Jesus himself also being God like you continue to falsely teach.

Interesting, it's not a convincing argument for Oneness through. All you're saying is that these passages correlate with Oneness theology. The problem is they also correlate with Trinitarianism. "Jesus answered him saying "have I been so long with you and still you don't know me, for he who has seen me has seen the Father also"." In this statement, Jesus is lamenting that Philippe didn't see Jesus as God walking the earth yet. After all, If Philippe saw Jesus as the true God, then he would also be seeing the first person of the Trinity too given that they are the same God. I tend to not use Philippians 2 in my debates with Oneness because we both agree that in form God means Jesus is God. But, how do you deal with the phrase "to be equal with God:" in v6? Because equality requires two who are equal. And, you only have one, or one with two perspectives. Either way, there is no "equal with God:" in Oneness.

God Bless
 
DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
If the Holy Spirit, the second person of the Trinity, indwells a believer, then all members of the Trinity are in us given they are the same God.
Except there is only one Mediator between God and man.

Interesting take given that being a Mediator is not indwelling someone. Maybe, you need to think through the specifics of this argument more.

Also, only the Son knows the Father, and reveals Him;

Let's look at the text:
At that time Jesus declared, “I thank you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that you have hidden these things from the wise and understanding and revealed them to little children; yes, Father, for such was your gracious will. All things have been handed over to me by my Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him. Come to me, all who labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn from me, for I am gentle and lowly in heart, and you will find rest for your souls. For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light.” Matthew 11:25-30.

Is the point of this passage to teach binitarianism? Or is the point to emphasize Jesus' connection to the Father as to motivate people to come to him? After all, this section ends with
"For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light." When teaching things to the young, you leave out the minutia of specifics as to make a point. Did Jesus' audience in Matthew 11 think of the Holy Spirit as a distinct person? Would it help Jesus' mission in Matthew 11 to go into a long diatribe about how there were actually two people who are God with Jesus and that each know each other equally? His audience doesn't even know Jesus is God yet. His point was to emphasize Jesus' connection to the Father as to motivate people to come to him, and he used their limited knowledge of the divine to express this reality. Jesus tells them that he is closer every person they know of who is God than anyone else they know. That's true and the point of this passage.

And don't forget that Christ is the Spirit.
Oops! No trinity.

Christ isn't the Spirit as John 14:26 points out. So, yes Trinity.

God Bless
 
Interesting, it's not a convincing argument for Oneness through. All you're saying is that these passages correlate with Oneness theology. The problem is they also correlate with Trinitarianism. "Jesus answered him saying "have I been so long with you and still you don't know me, for he who has seen me has seen the Father also"." In this statement, Jesus is lamenting that Philippe didn't see Jesus as God walking the earth yet. After all, If Philippe saw Jesus as the true God, then he would also be seeing the first person of the Trinity too given that they are the same God. I tend to not use Philippians 2 in my debates with Oneness because we both agree that in form God means Jesus is God. But, how do you deal with the phrase "to be equal with God:" in v6? Because equality requires two who are equal. And, you only have one, or one with two perspectives. Either way, there is no "equal with God:" in Oneness.

God Bless
You have a hard time paying attention to what someone else is saying in their response don't you? It is either that or you are just being deceptive and twisting what they say, for I never said that John 1:1 actually goes along with the oneness theology but only that it might look that way until what John states is examined more closely.

You need to get this straight right from Jesus' own words in that 10th verse, he wasn't speaking for himself but for the Father who was dwelling within him and revealing himself through the works that they saw in Jesus.

In other words when Jesus said "have I been so long with you and yet you still don't know me" it was the words of the Father answering Philip and not Jesus, and the point was that the disciples were already seeing the Father as revealed through Jesus, because the Father was in Jesus manifesting himself through Jesus.

Jesus was God's mouth piece and Jesus himself told us us this more than three different times in the gospels also.

Therefore, all of what you stated above in the bolded red is nothing more than a bunch of worthless trinity bias carnal human reasoning, for nothing of the sort could ever be contrived from what Jesus actually said in that text.
 
What a vacuous response. Don't interact with anything the other person said, just assert you are correct and pretend you diligently trust in God while no one else even tries. I'm interacting with how the common Greek speaker in the first century would understand the phrase ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ, while you just declare your correct.

Interesting retranslation of the verse. When Scripture doesn't teach what you believe, rewrite it from a position of ignorance.



What would
ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος, in the likeness and fashion of man mean in the first century? Would it mean a king acting like a commoner? Or, would it emphasize what kind of Servant, a human servant? But again, how would you know? It's not like you learned Greek and studies their culture to understand what that idiom meant. You just diligently trusted in God in ways far more than anyone else. It couldn't be that you've been deceived in a way to bolster you're hubris. After all, this isn't the only place were the narrative of one who is God became man is presented in Scripture. You have John 1:1-18; Hebrew 1, Titus 2:13; Genesis 18-19; Genesis 32:22-32; Isaiah 9:6; etc. etc. etc. But, keep on making excuses. Keep on basing your entire position on the certainty of your own conviction. Don't present a reasoned argument from the Scripture that your position is true. Don't dig into the actual language to see if your excuses hold water. Definitely don't humble yourself to interact with the expertise of those who know more than you in a field. That way, you can remain confident in your position while puffing up your ego with respect to knowing so much more than others because after all you more diligently trusted in God. The best argument against your position is how you choose to argue. Those with the goods, stick to the goods and answer challenges directly. Only desperate men who have no real confidence in their position use hubris as their primary argument. Although, I do find it funny to reflect that same hubris back at those who act like this. Because, I have the goods.



Interesting, I'm not to trust in what the apostles wrote? I'm only suppose to trust in your proclamation justified by how much more diligent you've been in your studies as opposed to mine?



Interesting, I make an appeal to common knowledge that takes two seconds for you to google, and somehow that shows I'm unable to prove something? I googled Aristotle and morphe and this is the first thing that pops up:

Aristotle famously contends that every physical object is a compound of matter and form. This doctrine has been dubbed “hylomorphism”, a portmanteau of the Greek words for matter (hulê)and form (eidos or morphê)....The word “form” may misleadingly suggest that what is acquired in a case of substantial generation is simply a shape...When we consider organisms, however, it becomes apparent that having the right shape is not sufficient to possess the form. A thing’s form is its definition or essence—what it is to be a human being, for example. A statue may be human-shaped, but it is not a human, because it cannot perform the functions characteristic of humans: thinking, perceiving, moving, desiring, eating and growing, etc.


Silly person who purposefully jumps back and forth between two topics as to confuse everything. You said in the context of Matthew 28:19 "If Jesus never ceased to be God, then he would never have had to be given all authority in Heaven and Earth either, for he would have already had it from all eternity." I'm answering why he had to be given authority, he emptied himself to become a man. So, my perspective perfectly corresponds to Jesus being given authority in light of my theology, not in light of your truncated straw man.

With respect to Philippians 2:5-11, my reasoning on this suggests that Paul was telling us to have humility like Jesus who humbled himself as to be made in human likeness and die on a cross. If Jesus, being God, can humbly die on the cross for our sins, can we not humble ourselves as to serve him?


God Bless
I think we have run our course long enough with this, for both of us have expressed what we believe and don't believe and why and therefore we are only going around in circles with the same arguments and I don't see the point in wasting any more time with it.


Romans 2:9.
 
Interesting take given that being a Mediator is not indwelling someone. Maybe, you need to think through the specifics of this argument more.

Mediator means a go-between. God lives in us by Christ. He comes between us and God. He is the Mediator between us and God. There's no "third person" / a second go-between/mediator involved.

Is the point of this passage to teach binitarianism? Or is the point to emphasize Jesus' connection to the Father as to motivate people to come to him? After all, this section ends with [/COLOR]"For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light." When teaching things to the young, you leave out the minutia of specifics as to make a point. Did Jesus' audience in Matthew 11 think of the Holy Spirit as a distinct person? Would it help Jesus' mission in Matthew 11 to go into a long diatribe about how there were actually two people who are God with Jesus and that each know each other equally? His audience doesn't even know Jesus is God yet. His point was to emphasize Jesus' connection to the Father as to motivate people to come to him, and he used their limited knowledge of the divine to express this reality. Jesus tells them that he is closer every person they know of who is God than anyone else they know. That's true and the point of this passage.

"The third person of the trinity" DOES NOT KNOW the Father. NOR does it reveal Him. NOR has it been entrusted with anything by the Father.

Yes, Jesus was refuting trinitarianism in Matt 11:27.

Deal with it.

Christ isn't the Spirit as John 14:26 points out. So, yes Trinity.

Evasion of 2 Cor 3:17 which calls Christ the Spirit.

Evasion of 1 Jn 2:1 which calls Christ the Advocate.

Evasion of John 14:18 which calls Christ the Comforter.

No trinity.

Deal with it.
 
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