DoctrinesofGraceBapt
Well-known member
Well that's nice, but you still believe in a third person who goes between you and Jesus, and God. A second mediator. You merely have trouble owning up to it and dealing with it.DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
No, I do not believe the third person goes between us and Christ and God. I believe the third person indwells us to empower us to live for God. And, a mediator is more than a go-between.
That may be how you take it, but a go betweener isn't necessarily a mediator. At best, you can call the Holy spirit a messenger. A mediator does more them simply pass on messages. A mediator represents the other party. The HS can't be our mediator because he is not man. Christ can be our mediator because he is both God and man.
Ooof.. that wasn't a yes or no response.DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
You are asking questions about topics that are not under discussion in this passage. Stop abusing Scripture
I'll ask again.
Does "the third person of the trinity" KNOW the Father? YES/NO.
You are asking questions about topics that are not under discussion in this passage. Stop abusing Scripture
2 Cor 3:17 does not merely say "Christ is Spirit", it says "CHRIST IS THE SPIRIT".DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Yes, Christ is God, and God is Spirit. Therefore, there is no reason to take from this that the 2nd person of the Trinity is the 3rd person of the Trinity.
Wow, isn't THE SPIRIT THE HOLY SPIRIT? Wow, Christ is THE HOLY SPIRIT.
And? There is only one Spirit of God ontologically. How does that mean the person referenced by the title "the Holy Spirit" is the person referenced by the title "the Son"? There is no reason whatsoever to say the Spirit is the Holy Spirit in every context.
John 14:16 is talking about Jesus. Read John 14:18,20..DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Not when John 14:16 says the Holy Spirit is "another Comforter/Advocate".
John 14:18-20 literally cannot teach Jesus is this Spirit because of how John 14:16-17 uses personal pronouns. This is true for two reasons: 1) John 14:16-17 is just that clear, and 2) John 14:18-20 doesn't even attempt to equate the two.
Dude keep reading:DoctrinesofGraceBapt said:
Dude, read the text: "And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Comforter, to be with you forever, even the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him. You know him, for he dwells with you and will be in you."
John 14:18-20
18 I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.
19 Yet a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live, ye shall live also.
20 At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.
I'm all for reading more, but nothing here says Jesus is the Spirit of Truth. While v16-17 clearly distinguish between Jesus and this other Comforter.
In fact, John 14 is right before Jesus' crucification. Jesus is saying he will come to them for a little while and then leave again. Remember, Jesus dies, Jesus rises again and stays with them for some 40 days before the rising up into heaven, only to pour the Holy Spirit on them at Pentecost.
Because He spoke in VEILED LANGUAGE.
John 16:25
“I have told you these things in figurative language (veiled language, proverbs); the hour is now coming when I will no longer speak to you in figures of speech, but I will tell you plainly about the Father.
Convenient. Not meaningful in any sense of the word, but convenient.
Jesus is famous for speaking about Himself in third person. It doesn't mean there IS a third person.
How does Jesus talk about himself in the third person? Typically he just talking about a supposed other person. For example, "And Jesus said to him, “Foxes have holes, and birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay his head.” Matthew 8:20. How is this similar to "But the Comforter, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." John 14:26? Notice, when Jesus uses the third person in Scripture, there is no reference to himself at all outside of the 3rd person use itself. In John 14, Jesus refers to himself as I and my and then refers to the other Comforter. Ergo, Jesus isn't speaking in the 3rd person in John 14:16-17, 26. He is speaking about someone else.
I forgot to ask, how do you deal with passages like 2 Cor. 13:14- "The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ and the love of God and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all."? Why separate the three, when there are only two?
Isaiah 51:12
“I, even I, am He who comforts you.
Who are you that you should be afraid
Of a man who will die,
And of the son of a man who will be made like grass?
Hosea 2:14
Therefore, behold, I will allure her, and bring her into the wilderness, and speak comfortably unto her.
Isaiah 40:1
Comfort, comfort my people, says your God.
You do realize that comfort in Isaiah 51:12 and Hosea 2:14 and comforter in John 14 have two radically different roots. The parallels in the passages are a function of the translating, and they don't actually reflect a connection between the passages. Isaiah 40:1 at least has some connection. But there is a difference between one who gives comfort and a comforter by trade. Comforter in John 14:16, 26 is a job title. Isaiah 40 just says that the Father gives comfort, not that the Father has the job title of comforter.
God Bless