Second things, the bible does allude to the concept of Immaculate conception, the perpetual Virginity and Bodily assumption of Mary.
No, it doesn't, and you very well know it.
If it did, you'd be the first to quote the specific verses.
But you can't, since they don't exist.
Mary was a creature, i.e. created. We never asserted anything else. But, normal? I wouldn't say so.
Then you'd be wrong.
It seems you are offering nothing but your own self-serving opinion.
few if any women loved God as she did.
Again, you have no evidence for that bankrupt claim.
None were the beloved most favored of God,
Neither was Mary.
And as others have shown you:
Matt. 11:11 Truly, I say to you, among those born of women there has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist.
Mary was born of a woman, correct?
So John the Baptist was greater than she.
It pleased God to use her.
That doesn't make her "great".
and the spouse of the Holy Spirit.
Another false claim by you.
If what you were saying were true, you are calling the Holy Spirit a deadbeat dad, and calling Mary an adulterer since she married Joseph.
Never said it was, but the contention was that Mary sinned. According to the paradigm, if it ain't in Scripture it ain't so - still waiting ont the authority of Scripture , but in the interim you can point out all her sin, because if it ain't in the Book it ain't so.
"All have sinned" (Rom. 3:23).
You destroy Scripture when you try to make self-serving exceptions.
But even if you want specific sins of Mary, why did Jesus feel the need to rebuke her in John 2?
You need to check the dates and do the math. Mary was assumed in heaven long before St. Paul wrung out the squid to eke out the ink.
You are really grasping at straws, aren't you?
Paul was writing a gnomic truth which is true when he wrote it, after he wrote it, and before he wrote it. And further, he wrote it in the PAST TENSE ("have sinned"), meaning it was true prior to him writing it down.
Here's the most likely reason he uses all. In both chapter 3 and chapter 5 we find St. Paul addressing the Jews along side the gentiles. These particular group of Jews contend that they have an ‘advantage’ over the gentile by virtue of circumcision, or more to the point, the Law of Moses. In my vernacular he would have said "y'all" meaning both groups of gentile and Jew. In St. Paul's vernacular he said "all sinned", meaning both groups, gentile and Jew. In short used a rhetorical form of speech.
So when he writes, "No, NOT ONE" in Rom. 3:10, that doesn't exclude any individual. It is ALL-inclusive. It's not limited merely to "groups".
Yeah, we get it.
You hate Scripture and your false teachings force you to reject it at every turn.