Lastdaysbeliever
Well-known member
even if what you say is true that it is peter's statement of faith, the biblical fact is that jesus established his church and the keys of heaven was given to peter being the chief steward of the church here on earth (see isaiah 22:22 for the analogy). how can you refute the claims of early christians on the primacy of peter/rome? unless, you claim you know better than those who were taught by the apostles and their disciples.
What I wrote is right in Scripture for you to read. The plain, contextual God-breathed written words of God. The "early Christians", meaning who exactly? Were they the Apostles and disciples who knew and walked with Jesus? And if not why should I, as a born-again Christian, give their claims greater recognition than what is in Scripture? So, the answer to your question is if what anyone wrote that deviated from what God spoke through the writers of the NT, by the inspiration of His Holy Spirit, it is to be refuted.
but you accepted the christian writings this organized institution through its councils in the 3-4 century with the approval of the pope/rome determined as inspired and to be the canon of the book we call the bible. the bible where you base your faith and teachings. is that not ironic?
There was no pope in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd or 4th century. You claim is spurious. And you seem to ignore what I wrote in my reply to you in post #349. Here, I'll quote it to refresh your memory:
"The later councils and debates were largely useful in weeding out inferior books that claimed the same authority.". The accepted Scriptures were considered inspired if these were written by one of Jesus' disciples, someone who was a witness to Jesus' ministry, such as Peter, or someone who interviewed witnesses, such as Luke. Were written in the first century A.D., meaning that books written long after the events of Jesus' life and the first decades of the church weren't included and were consistent with other portions of the Bible known to be valid, meaning the book couldn't contradict a trusted element of Scripture.
The councils in question were the council of Nicea in A.D. 325 and the First Council of Constantinople in A.D. 381. Well before the Rcc so therein lays the historical facts you didn't mention."
here...
In the "Oxford English Dictionary", the highest existing authority upon questions of English philology, the following explanation is given under the heading "Roman Catholic".
The use of this composite term in place of the simple Roman, Romanist, or Romish; which had acquired an invidious sense, appears to have arisen in the early years of the seventeenth century. For conciliatory reasons it was employed in the negotiations connected with the Spanish Match (1618-1624) and appears in formal documents relating to this printed by Rushworth (I, 85-89). After that date it was generally adopted as a non-controversial term and has long been the recognized legal and official designation, though in ordinary use Catholic alone is very frequently employed. (New Oxford Dict., VIII, 766)
Kindly post what Pope Gregory said. i would make a guess that he said 'roman see' and not 'roman catholic church'.
Gregory is considered the first pope of the Rcc. So much for the "unbroken apostolic succession" claim of your Rcc.
you just cannot admit the historical truth that the councils of the catholic church in the 3-4th century determined which writings were inspired and collected them to be the canon of the new testament that you and i are using.
See my comment and quote above.