SAYS IT ALL, RIGHT THERE!You spend most of your time trying to prove (via cut and paste level research)....
Right on. ?
SAYS IT ALL, RIGHT THERE!You spend most of your time trying to prove (via cut and paste level research)....
The ox that says horned to the donkey.Your methodology is flawed in innumerable ways.
Your premise is flawed to start with, so, your conclusion, obviously.
You spend your time making up myths, we spend our time examining the facts.
You spend most of your time trying to prove (via cut and paste level research) that the pseudographa is not falsely attributed work, we simply point out, ah daa, there's a reason why it's got the prefix "Pseudo"!
Nothing you've said or posted anywhere on the internet has moved the dial for us, not a nano-milimeter.
Enjoy your day Mr Avery.
The ox that says horned to the donkey.
Why your myths?:
1) Priscillian who invents the Comma on the basis of Leo I and the council of Toledo: on a single sentence (which can mean everything and the opposite!) Which is not even reflected on the autograph works in addition!
2) The author of Cent is hear hear Priscillian or one of his followers ... handsome on the basis of what? from the second to the fourth century how many heterodox or heretical currents have followed one another of an encratic nature? or that refer to the angels, then `` there is no reference '' to the Comma using a wrong quotation!
3) '' tres unum sunt '' versus '' Dominus unum '' but what do you say on the basis of what? ate these textual confrontations that suddenly take on the character of theological struggle according to the currents `` according to you ''
4) Last '' not yours '': The diacritics of the Vaticanus are from the sixteenth century because a Spanish gentleman would have made annotations on the Vaticanus. Misguided by spectrometric studies
Tell me who builds myths on the basis of nothing !! You attack Avery but in reality you do the same thing because you too have your core beliefs to defend ... Even if you use works by titled authors to do so it does not make the theories you use to fight back less crazy
What is nonsense?no i am not confused or just wrong the english term is YOURS not YOUR i also spoke of cjab and the other, as well as with you; i speak at plural not at singular; I have read a bit of nonsense said by various people not only by Avery who, however, says something right too, even if mostly aimed at defending a text that has its errors. this was a small list of various nonsense that struck me most
(2) The mistranslation of 1 John 5:8 by the Vulgate/Old Latin. οἱ τρεῖς εἰς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν doesn't translate to hi tres unum sunt but more like hi tres in uno sunt.
The first stage entailed the dishonest Latin mistranslation of 1 John 5:8 from the Greek, "Spiritus et aqua et sanguis et tres unum sunt" (Vulgate).
What was the honest Latin text they should have given?
I'm reading the Vulgate online. Also see here. Both clearly say "hi tres unum sunt."So this is your answer to my question?
Note that you changed the Latin text.
cjab
Greek- οἱ τρεῖς εἰς τὸ ἐν εἰσὶν
correct Latin for 5:8 - hi tres in uno sunt
mistranslation - hi tres unum sunt
mistranslation - et tres unum sunt
Just want to try to understand your claims!
(Which no one has ever previously made, afaik.)
Where do you get "the correct Latin" is hi tres in uno sunt from?
It's your job to disprove. You've got a lot of work to do.That is your claim. I am only trying to make sense of what you have written about a supposed mistranslation.
And I doubt if any Greek-Latin expert will agree with you.
It's your job to disprove. You've got a lot of work to do.
You have no point to make.Nobody has to pay any attention to it, except to point out your scholastic difficulty.
... Qui tres unum sunt, non unus, quomodo dictum est, Ego et Pater unum sumus, ....
("Thus the connection of the Father in the Son, and of the Son in the Paraclete, produces three coherent Persons, who are yet distinct One from Another. These three are one [thing], not one [Person], as it is said, 'I and my Father are One,' in respect of unity of substance not singularity of number.")
This doesn't reflect the Greek "in one" or "in agreement" in respect of the (earthly) witnesses. Tertullian is engaging in heresy at this point.
Certainly. That "the three are one [thing] (and not one [Lord] per Deut 6:4) is radical and novel per scripture (in the absence of 1 John 5:7).So you are accusing Tertullian of mistranslating, (also misinterpreting.)
In 1 John 5:8 it would seem to be the proper translation.Is this the only Latin text you accept?
hi tres in uno sunt
I wouldn't know. It is very likely there are late manuscripts with "hi tres in uno sunt" in them. As to early manuscripts, I don't know.So, to you, almost every Latin text is wrong.
In 1 John 5:8 it would seem to be the proper translation.
I wouldn't know. It is very likely there are late manuscripts with "hi tres in uno sunt" in them. As to early manuscripts, I don't know.
Seems the Greeks liked to reprove the Latins. This example concerning use of unleavened bread by Latins:And you claim everything else is a mistranslation.
Hardly any usage, ms. or church writer, early or late.