Yahchristian
Well-known member
TRINITARIANS, just to clarify your doctrine…
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
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Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
- Thread starter Yahchristian
- Start date
TRINITARIANS, just to clarify your doctrine…
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
TRINITARIANS, just to clarify your doctrine…
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
Then you believe Jesus is just omniscient?
Or do you believe Jesus was just non-omniscient?
Which?
Yahchristian
Well-known member
Then you believe Jesus is just omniscient?
Or do you believe Jesus was just non-omniscient?
Which?
Jesus (Yahweh incarnate) is non-omniscient.
Matthew 24:4,36: And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you... But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
Now are you able to answer my question or not !!!
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
johnny guitar
Well-known member
IOW Jesus The MAN is non-omniscient.Jesus (Yahweh incarnate) is non-omniscient.
Matthew 24:4,36: And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you... But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
Now are you able to answer my question or not !!!
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
Jesus The Son of God is omniscient.
Yahchristian
Well-known member
IOW Jesus The MAN is non-omniscient.
Jesus The Son of God is omniscient.
Okay, but the question concerns the specific term "the Word".
Are you able to answer the question or not !!!
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
Jesus (Yahweh incarnate) is non-omniscient.
Matthew 24:4,36: And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you... But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
Now are you able to answer my question or not !!!
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
I already answered *YES* in your OP post#1 before you even asked. Notice it says "the Word" at the end.
Jesus experienced both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time in one divine person ie the Word.
And now you add a scripture in post#3 and claim I didn't answer it?
But Ok, I'll answer it with reference to your new added scripture.
Jesus is the Word ie God under the influence of the non-omniscient human senses and *YES*, didn't know all things as in Matt 24:4,26.
But behind the scenes Jesus/theWord, *YES* simultaneously omnisciently continued to upheld all things all along. ....
Colossians 1:17 (KJV) And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
johnny guitar
Well-known member
Since the Word is God, NO.Okay, but the question concerns the specific term "the Word".
Are you able to answer the question or not !!!
Did the Word experience both omniscience and non-omniscience at the same time?
I say NO.
Jesus (Yahweh incarnate) is non-omniscient.
Was the Father then also not omniscient of experiencing being the Son?