I think we can know that Jesus changed position with respect to God, as contrasted with the Word in heaven. He said he was "sent." This has significance. It clearly disapplies John 1:1b. I think you are being disingenuous with the truth.At face value this is a correct statement, though I can't be certain what you mean by it. There are two identities that are distinguished from each other, yet both are called God.
I've told you many times that I don't have enough information to say. In other words, I don't think we can know.
The article is used for many other things also. To suggest that the only use for the Greek article is to distinguish subhect and object/predicate is wrong. For someone who claims to read Greek, your lack of ability to reason here is noteworthy.I don't ignore the grammar, and I don't ignore the article. The article is most likely used to distinguish the subject from the fronted predicate nominative.
To claim that I've ignored the grammar when you've already been given this explanation is dishonest. How many grammars agree with the general assertion that you've made that the presence of the article with "theos" denotes "the Father"?
Here is part of a trinitarian version of what I have been saying (Cambridge bible Commentary for Schools and Colleges). I'm not agreeing with the use of all the words - I profoundly disagree with the use of "equal" here - this is not implied at all - and I would prefer it if it said that the Logos was in the "form" of God per Phil 2:6.
However one thing is clear: it is that this "trinitarian" profoundly disagrees with your sabellian slant on John 1:1.
"the Word was God] i.e. the Word partook of the Divine Nature, not was identical with the Divine Person. The verse may be thus paraphrased, ‘the Logos existed from all eternity, distinct from the Father, and equal to the Father.’ Comp. ‘neither confounding the Persons nor dividing the Substance.’"
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