DoctrinesofGraceBapt
Well-known member
That's a matter of opinion because textual criticism has many doubters as to the basis of some saying one script is more accurate than another here. It's by no means only the KJV. It simply can't be trusted to be the only basis for your doctrine when other scriptures that don't have these script issues are clearer. For example:
The angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God. Luke 1:35
Yes, some have uniformed opinions and others are informed. I just presented the facts of the matter. If you don't what to believe the facts, okay.
I didn't use it to justify my doctrine. I just quoted the ESV, an extremely well respected Translation of the Bible, and explained the reasoning behind the translational difference. I am not arguing Jesus is God the Son because of this translation of John 1:18. FYI, the Greek of Luke 1:35 is υἱὸς θεοῦ. The genitive here can communicate the idea that God is the Father of this Son, or it can communicate the idea that this Son is God, i.e. God the Son. To clarify, I'm not arguing that the second idea is correct; I'm just saying it's more complicated than what you are considering.
Jesus didn't say "look THROUGH ME and see the Father". You're twisting the scripture. Jesus said this as a man and his disciples were visibly seeing him.
I didn't say Jesus said "look THROUGH ME and see the Father". Perhaps, you shouldn't change someone wording as to accuse them of wrong doing.
Yet you contradict yourself in John 1:18 because according to your preferred version of John 1:18 "no has has seen God", but then in the same verse "the only God... he has made him known". You arbitrary, without textual support, insert "God the Father" for the first "God" in the verse and then "God the Son" for the second occurrence of "God" in this verse.
How is this contradictory? The first use of God is clearly referring to the Father, and the second use is clearly referring to the Son. Therefore, no contradiction at all.
You're playing games. Your doctrine strongly asserts an eternally begotten God the Son. So whether you meant it in one of your sentences or not is beside the point.
And? I wasn't making that argument. So, I'm not playing games. You're just pretending I'm making arguments I'm not to find some reason to attack me.
You're separating the Father from his Word too much. The whole purpose of a person having a word is that it is the expression of oneself. Why do you strip the Father of His own word and insert a second eternal person that not a single Jewish person in the OT had any idea even existed?
So, the only reason you have to reject my interpretation is theological. Interesting.
It's nonsensical if you hold to a cathedral stained glass view of God the Father having an old body and then a younger man sitting next to him. That's polytheism. God is Spirit and they that worship him worship him in Spirit and in truth. Not silly pagan depictions of body-limited deities.
So in response to argument against your interpretation, you attack my theology. That doesn't seem reasonable.
Why not just take John's use of the term Logos seriously? Why does John use the term logos if YOUR terminology is more better?
I am taking John's use of the term Logos seriously. John is using the title "the Word" for Jesus just like Jesus used the titles "the Way, the Truth," and the Life" for himself. Why he choose to use this title is interesting, but it is irrelevant to the argument I'm presenting.
Again, you are not grasping that God is indeed a Spirit who is omnipotent and everywhere present. The Father's logos is His visible expression or Glory in Isaiah 6. Again you arbitrarily insert "Father" or "Son" in verses but the Biblical authors didn't see any need to distinguish between persons. Is your physical body another person than the human spirit within your body? Is your word another person of you?
So, you are interpreting it similarly to the way I am. You're just not willing to think through all the logical implication of this passage. The passage says "he has made him know". Not, the impersonal visible expression made him known. And, if it is just saying, God's impersonal visible expression made him known what on earth does "No one has ever seen God" mean, and why is John bringing this up?
If you think so, this is why you are getting into trouble with the other Isaiah scriptures where YHWH declares in the strongest monotheistic language possible that "there is no God, beside me... I know not any". Your view of God is not "I AM" but "WE ARE" because you want to go down the rabbit trail of having a second divine personage who alone is the Word of God. That gives you a "WE ARE" and that is a problem for you. That you live with this sort of Schizophrenia where you really do conceive of a concept of God as three distinct eternal persons who love one another while not admitting that you have a "WE ARE" God.
Are you forgetting that we are monotheists? Or, are you just pretending otherwise? The Father and Son are different persons while being the same God.
We don't need to say anyone lied, but we do need to stick with the fundamental doctrine of God that he is "I AM" and not "WE ARE". "No man has seen God" therefore needs to be understood with qualifications and this is true even with your John 1:18 "God...God" rendering. John wrote with the understanding that his readers would understand the qualifications. For example, in 1 John 5:18 he says “We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one toucheth him not". Are we to be strict literalists here and discount everything else John writes and actually believe that everyone born again never sins? You've got to take this style of language with assumed qualifications otherwise you contradict fundamental doctrine.
1 Timothy 6:15-16 "... Lord Jesus Christ’s appearing, 15which He will manifest in His own time, He who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings and Lord of lords, 16who alone has immortality, dwelling in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see, to whom be honor and everlasting power. Amen.
Oh, so instead of seriously dealing with the text, we are to double down on your theology and ignore what the text is actually talking about.
God Bless