This is Smith's "inspired" version? If so, it came from the devil, the father of lies. The REAL verse is:
"For this reason
it is [
a]by faith, in order that
it may be in accordance with grace, so that the promise will be guaranteed to all the [
b]descendants, not only to [
c]those who are of the Law, but also to [
d]those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all..." (NASB 1995)
Nothing here about our works, at all. Nothing. Once again, Joseph Smith lied.
I'm going to assume that most people here can't read Koine Greek, so I will be using a transliteration of the Greek, rather than the Greek text itself.
JST: "Therefore are ye justified of faith
and works, through grace,
NASB: :For this reason
it is by faith, in order that
it may be in accordance with grace,
Greek: "dia touto
........ ek pisteos,
.........hina
...................................kata
.... xarin,
JST: to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed;
NASB: so that the promise will be guaranteed to all the descendants,
Greek: eis to einai bebaian ten epaggelian
....... panti
.... toi spermati,
JST: not them only who are of the law,
NASB: not only to those who are of the Law,
Greek: ou toi ek tou nomou monon,
JST: but to them also who are of the faith of Abraham;
NASB: but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham,
Greek: alla kai toi ek pisteos Abraam,
JST: who is the father of us all."
NASB: who is the father of us all..."
Greek: hos estin pater panton hemon
The only change of any significance is the addition of "and works" in the beginning of the verse.
I've checked all the available textual apparatuses (these list any significant textual variants anywhere in the New Testament) namely Metzger, Comfort, NA28, UBS3, and the CNTTS, the last one being the most comprehensive, and none of them list "kai ergous" ("and works").
So for any Mormons who wish to respond, I have two questions:
1) Why should anyone accept Smith's "JST" when there is zero manuscript evidence to support any such change?
2) Why would Paul allegedly write "faith and works" in v.16, when just a few issues earlier Paul explicitly DENIED works as having any salvific role?:
Rom. 4:2 For if Abraham was
justified by works, he has something to boast about,
but not before God.
Rom. 4:5 And to
the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly,
his faith is counted as righteousness,
Rom. 4:6 just as David also speaks of the blessing of the one to whom
God counts righteousness apart from works:
Ironically, Rom. 4:2-5 and Rom. 4:16 seem to be the ONLY sections of Rom. 4 that Joseph corrupted, so his level of self-unawareness is through the roof.